A woman’s pelvis is described as long and narrow with an anteroposterior diameter greater than the transverse diameter. This is known as which type of pelvis?
- A. Platypelloid
- B. Android
- C. Anthropoid
- D. Gynecoid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anthropoid. In an anthropoid pelvis, the anteroposterior diameter is greater than the transverse diameter, giving it a long and narrow shape. This type of pelvis resembles the pelvis seen in higher primates. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Platypelloid pelvis has a transversely wide and short shape.
B: Android pelvis has a heart-shaped inlet with a prominent sacrum and narrow pubic arch.
D: Gynecoid pelvis has a round inlet and a wide pubic arch, typically seen in females and ideal for childbirth.
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Which woman is the best candidate for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?
- A. A 34-year-old gravida 2, para 1 with one previous classical cesarean section for prematurity
- B. A 21-year-old gravida 2, para 1 with one previous low-transverse cesarean section for CPD
- C. A 31-year-old gravida 4, para 2 with one previous low-transverse cesarean section for late decelerations
- D. A 27-year-old gravida 3, para 2 with one previous T-shaped incision for macrosomia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A 21-year-old gravida 2, para 1 with one previous low-transverse cesarean section for CPD. This candidate is the best choice for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) because a low-transverse incision has the lowest risk of uterine rupture during labor compared to classical, T-shaped, or vertical incisions. Additionally, the indication for the previous cesarean section being cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) suggests that the pelvis may have been the limiting factor in the previous delivery, making a TOLAC a reasonable option. The other choices have higher risks of uterine rupture (classical incision, T-shaped incision) or indications that may increase the likelihood of complications during TOLAC (prematurity, late decelerations).
Which of the following are signs of impending labor? Select all that apply.
- A. Weight gain
- B. Surge of energy
- C. Increase in urinary frequency
- D. Dyspnea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Surge of energy. This is a sign of impending labor because some women experience a burst of energy as the body prepares for childbirth. Weight gain (A) is not a typical sign of impending labor, as weight gain usually occurs earlier in pregnancy. Increase in urinary frequency (C) is a common symptom throughout pregnancy and may not specifically indicate impending labor. Dyspnea (D), which is difficulty breathing, is not typically a sign of impending labor unless it is due to specific complications.
A 28-year-old woman without risk factors has now reached the second stage of labor. What is the optimal position for her at this point?
- A. Supine
- B. Lateral recumbent
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Squatting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The optimal position for a woman in the second stage of labor is lateral recumbent. This position allows gravity to aid in the descent of the baby, reduces pressure on the vena cava, and promotes better blood flow to the uterus. It also helps prevent perineal tears and facilitates fetal rotation.
A: Supine position can compress the vena cava, reducing blood flow to the uterus.
C: Lithotomy position is not recommended as it can lead to increased perineal trauma.
D: Squatting may not be ideal as it can be tiring for the mother and may not provide optimal support for delivery.
During an oxytocin induction, which assessment finding is most concerning to the labor and delivery nurse?
- A. A uterine resting tone of 17 mm Hg
- B. A uterine resting tone of 30 mm Hg
- C. Contractions that are every 3 minutes and last 60 seconds
- D. Contractions that are every 5 minutes and last 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (A uterine resting tone of 30 mm Hg) because a high uterine resting tone indicates uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to uterine rupture, fetal distress, and compromised blood flow to the placenta. A higher resting tone of 30 mm Hg is concerning compared to the normal range of 12-18 mm Hg.
Choice A (A uterine resting tone of 17 mm Hg) is within the normal range, so it is not as concerning as a higher resting tone.
Choices C (Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds) and D (Contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds) describe the frequency and duration of contractions, which are important but are not as immediately concerning as a high uterine resting tone.
The labor and delivery nurse is caring for a 27-year-old primigravida with the following vaginal exam: 2 to 3 cm dilated/70% effaced/-2 station. For the last 2 hours the FHR tracing has displayed a Category I tracing and uterine contractions that are every 2 minutes. The contractions are strong to palpation and the patient is now 3/70%/-2. Which is the nurse’s next best action?
- A. Encourage the patient to ambulate
- B. Request orders to initiate oxytocin
- C. Assist the patient to a warm bath
- D. Document the findings
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, documenting the findings. In this scenario, the patient is in active labor with regular strong contractions, cervical change, and a reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. The priority is to document these important clinical findings accurately for proper assessment and monitoring of progress. Encouraging ambulation (A) may not be safe due to the frequency and strength of contractions. Initiating oxytocin (B) is unnecessary as labor is progressing well on its own. Assisting the patient to a warm bath (C) may provide comfort but is not the most critical action at this time.