McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank

McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank Related

Review McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank related questions and content

A worker of a cattle farm consulted a surgeon about fever up to 40oC, headache, weakness. Objective examination of his back revealed hyperaemia and a dark red infiltration up to 5 cm in diameter with black bottom in the center and some pustules. What disease are these presentations typical for?

  • A. Anthrax
  • B. Plaque
  • C. Tularemia
  • D. Furuncle
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthrax. The symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, and the skin lesion described (hyperemic with a dark red infiltration, black center, and pustules) are characteristic of cutaneous anthrax. The black center is known as an eschar. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, commonly found in cattle. Plague (choice B) typically presents with swollen lymph nodes (buboes) and is caused by Yersinia pestis. Tularemia (choice C) presents with fever, ulcer at the site of infection, and lymphadenopathy, caused by Francisella tularensis. Furuncle (choice D) is a localized skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus, presenting as a red, swollen, and painful bump.

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In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?

  • A. Bacterial DNA
  • B. Bacterial toxin
  • C. H. pylori bacterium itself
  • D. Bacterial enzymes – urease and catalase
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.

Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only, until the victim reaches another safety unit?

  • A. Emergency shower
  • B. Personal eyewash
  • C. Handheld drench hose
  • D. Combination unit
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Personal eyewash. Personal eyewash is designed for immediate flushing until the victim reaches a more suitable safety unit. It provides a controlled flow of water to safely flush eyes while transporting the victim. The emergency shower (A) is meant for full-body coverage, not just for the eyes. Handheld drench hose (C) may not provide adequate flushing pressure. Combination unit (D) may not be easily portable for immediate use.

A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?

  • A. P. aeruginosa
  • B. P. vulgaris
  • C. S. aureus
  • D. S. pyogenes
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections.
Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa.
Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa.
Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa.
Summary:
- B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor.
- C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor.
- D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.

A pregnant woman complains of vaginal mucosa irritation, itching and genital tracts secretion. Bacterioscopy of vaginal smears revealed large gram-positive oval oblong cells that form pseudomicelium. What is the most probable channel of infection?

  • A. Endogenous infection
  • B. Sexual transmission
  • C. Contact infection
  • D. Vector-borne transmission
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual transmission. The symptoms described are indicative of a vaginal yeast infection caused by Candida albicans. The presence of large gram-positive oval oblong cells forming pseudomycelium is characteristic of Candida infection. Sexual transmission is the most probable channel of infection as Candida can be transmitted through sexual contact. Endogenous infection (A) refers to infections originating from the body's own flora, which is not the case here. Contact infection (C) typically involves direct physical contact or fomite transmission, which is less likely in this scenario. Vector-borne transmission (D) involves transmission through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks, which is not relevant in this case.

Diatoms, major components of marine phytoplankton, belong to:

  • A. Chrysophyta
  • B. Rhodophyta
  • C. Chlorophyta
  • D. Phaeophyta
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chrysophyta. Diatoms are classified under the division Chrysophyta due to their unique characteristics, such as possessing a cell wall made of silica (siliceous frustule) and containing chlorophyll a and c for photosynthesis. Chrysophyta includes golden-brown algae, which diatoms are a part of. Rhodophyta (B) includes red algae, Chlorophyta (C) includes green algae, and Phaeophyta (D) includes brown algae. These choices are incorrect as they do not align with the specific characteristics and classification of diatoms within the kingdom Protista.

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