A young adult asks the nurse about the normal cholesterol level. The nurse tells the client that the total cholesterol level should be maintained at less than:
- A. 140 mg/dL
- B. 200 mg/dL
- C. 250 mg/dL
- D. 300 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 200 mg/dL. A normal cholesterol value ranges between 140 and 199 mg/dL. Total cholesterol levels should ideally be maintained at 200 mg/dL or less to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended normal range for total cholesterol levels and may increase the risk of developing heart-related issues.
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A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to measure a carotid pulse. The nurse should tell the student to measure the pulse on only one side of the client's neck primarily because:
- A. It is unnecessary to use both hands
- B. Feeling dual pulsations may lead to an incorrect measurement
- C. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could occlude the trachea
- D. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to drop
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Applying pressure to both carotid arteries at the same time is contraindicated. Excess pressure to the baroreceptors in the carotid vessels could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to reflexively drop. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could also interfere with the flow of blood to the brain, possibly causing dizziness and syncope. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. It is necessary to use both hands to measure the carotid pulse accurately. Feeling dual pulsations does not lead to an incorrect measurement, and palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously does not occlude the trachea.
The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?
- A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
- B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
- C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
- D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.
A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:
- A. The tube is patent
- B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
- C. Suction should be added to the system
- D. The client is retaining airway secretions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.
A healthcare professional reviews the blood gas results of a client in respiratory distress. The pH is 7.32, and the PCO2 is 50 mm Hg. Which of the following acid-base imbalances does the professional recognize in these findings?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35) and the PCO2 is increased (>45 mm Hg). These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, commonly seen in respiratory distress. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is characterized by a low pH and decreased bicarbonate levels, which is not the case in this scenario. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is associated with a high pH and increased bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) is marked by a high pH and decreased PCO2, opposite to the values presented in the blood gas results of this client.
When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?
- A. Administering a sedative
- B. Encouraging fluid intake
- C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
- D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.