Nokea
A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?
- A. 0.19
- B. 0.09
- C. 0.39
- D. 0.29
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion is approximately 3% per unit of PRBCs. Since the client received 4 units, the expected increase would be 4 x 3% = 12%. Therefore, adding this to the pretransfusion hematocrit of 17% would result in an expected post-transfusion hematocrit of 29%. Choice A (0.19) is incorrect as it doesn't consider the incremental increase per unit of PRBCs. Choices B (0.09) and C (0.39) are also incorrect as they do not align with the expected increase in hematocrit following the transfusion of 4 units of PRBCs.
You may also like to solve these questions
What do crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate?
- A. Cyanosis.
- B. Bronchospasm.
- C. Airway narrowing.
- D. Fluid-filled alveoli.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Crackles heard on lung auscultation are caused by the popping open of small airways that are filled with fluid. This is commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or heart failure. Cyanosis (Choice A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, not directly related to crackles. Bronchospasm (Choice B) refers to the constriction of the airway smooth muscle, causing difficulty in breathing but does not typically produce crackles. Airway narrowing (Choice C) can lead to wheezing but is not directly linked to crackles heard on auscultation.
A young adult is burned when wearing a shirt that was splashed with lighter fluid and caught on fire while attempting to light a charcoal grill. The client ripped off the shirt immediately, without unbuttoning the sleeves, which caused circumferential burns to both wrists. When the client is admitted, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Monitor pulse intensity.
- B. Evaluate extremity sensation.
- C. Assess range of motion.
- D. Place sterile bandage on both wrists.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring pulse intensity is the priority to ensure circulation is not compromised due to circumferential burns.
The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:
- A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
- B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
- C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
- D. Correctly answer a posttest about the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Learning is best demonstrated by a change in behavior. A client who can safely and correctly perform the procedure shows they have acquired the skill. Choice B is incorrect because critiquing the nurse's performance does not directly demonstrate the client's ability to perform the procedure. Choice C is incorrect because explaining the steps does not guarantee the client can physically perform the injection. Choice D is incorrect as answering a posttest only assesses theoretical knowledge, not practical application.
The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
- B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
- D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.