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According to the 2010 American Heart Association Guidelines, which steps of cardiopulmonary resuscitation for an adult suffering from a cardiac arrest should the nurse teach individuals in the community? Rank in order of performance.
- A. Place the hands over the lower half of the sternum.
- B. Look for obvious signs of breathing.
- C. Begin compressions at a ratio of 30:2.
- D. Call for an AED immediately.
- E. Position the victim on the back.
Correct Answer: E,B,D,A,C
Rationale: 1. Position on back (E): Ensures a firm surface. 2. Look for breathing (B): Confirms arrest. 3. Call for AED (D): Activates help. 4. Place hands on sternum (A): Prepares for compressions. 5. Begin compressions 30:2 (C): Starts CPR.
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The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in one (1) minute.
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate.
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3.
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An S3 in mitral valve prolapse (C) suggests heart failure, requiring immediate assessment. Unifocal PVCs (A) are less urgent, ambulation (B) is routine, and normal rhythm in pericarditis (D) is stable.
The client shows ventricular fibrillation on the telemetry at the nurse’s station. Which action should the telemetry nurse implement first?
- A. Administer epinephrine IVP.
- B. Prepare to defibrillate the client.
- C. Call a STAT code.
- D. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a code situation. Calling a STAT code (C) initiates the response team. Epinephrine (A), defibrillation (B), and CPR (D) follow code activation.
The nurse is assisting with a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation. When the machine is activated, there is a pause. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges.
- B. Shout 'all clear' and don’t touch the bed.
- C. Make sure the client is all right.
- D. Increase the joules and redischarge.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pause in synchronized cardioversion is normal as the machine syncs with the QRS complex; wait for discharge (A). 'All clear' (B) is for defibrillation, checking client (C) is premature, and increasing joules (D) is incorrect.
Which assessment data would the nurse expect to auscultate in the client diagnosed with mitral valve insufficiency?
- A. A loud S1, S2 split, and a mitral opening snap.
- B. A holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex.
- C. A midsystolic ejection click or murmur heard at the base.
- D. A high-pitched sound heard at the third left intercostal space.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral insufficiency (regurgitation) causes a holosystolic murmur at the apex (B) due to backflow. S1/S2 snap (A) is mitral stenosis, ejection click (C) is aortic/pulmonic, and high-pitched sound (D) is nonspecific.
Which client would the nurse suspect of having a mitral valve prolapse?
- A. A 60-year-old female with congestive heart failure.
- B. A 23-year-old male with Marfan's syndrome.
- C. An 80-year-old male with atrial fibrillation.
- D. A 33-year-old female with Down syndrome.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral valve prolapse is common in Marfan’s syndrome (B) due to connective tissue defects. CHF (A), atrial fibrillation (C), and Down syndrome (D) are not strongly associated.