Nokea
According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Push hard
- B. Push fast
- C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
- D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.
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The student observes a patient with no breathing problems. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills?
- A. The student starts at the apices of the lungs and moves to the bases.
- B. The student compares breath sounds from side to side, avoiding bony areas.
- C. The student places the stethoscope over the posterior chest and listens during expiration.
- D. The student instructs the patient to breathe slowly and a little more deeply than normal through the mouth.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Listening only during inspiration instead of both inspiration and expiration indicates a need for a review of respiratory assessment skills. During chest auscultation, it is essential to listen to at least one cycle of inspiration and expiration at each placement of the stethoscope. Instructing the patient to breathe slowly and a little deeper than normal through the mouth is a correct practice during auscultation. The correct sequence for lung auscultation is from the apices to the bases, comparing breath sounds bilaterally, avoiding bony areas. It is crucial to place the stethoscope over lung tissue rather than bony prominences to accurately assess lung sounds.
What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?
- A. Comply with the laws of the state.
- B. Comply with the laws of the U.S.
- C. Comply with both state and U.S. laws
- D. Maintain safety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.
Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?
- A. Human immunodeficiency virus
- B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
- C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
- D. Measles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.
Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?
- A. Retractions
- B. Elongated expiratory phase
- C. Stridor
- D. Expiratory wheezing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?
- A. A 5-point restraint in the back seat, facing backward
- B. A booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
- C. A lap belt in the back seat
- D. A lap and shoulder belt in the front seat
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.