According to the Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmic drugs, which class works as potassium-channel blockers?
- A. Class I
- B. Class II
- C. Class III
- D. Class IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Class III (Choice C) antiarrhythmics, like amiodarone, block potassium channels, prolonging repolarization and the action potential, making it correct. Class I (Choice A) blocks sodium channels, Class II (Choice B) are beta-blockers, and Class IV (Choice D) block calcium channels, none targeting potassium, confirming C.
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If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics
- A. elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
- B. a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
- C. the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
- D. the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Constant amount eliminated (B) defines zero-order kinetics, per the text, making it correct. A is first-order, C and D are false, confirming B.
When involved in phase III drug evaluation studies, what responsibilities would the nurse have?
- A. Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
- B. Choosing appropriate patients to be involved in the drug study
- C. Monitoring and observing patients closely for adverse effects
- D. Conducting research to determine effectiveness of the drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In phase III studies, nurses monitor patients closely for adverse effects (C) in a large clinical population, collecting data for FDA review, per the text. Animal work (A) occurs in preclinical phases, patient selection (B) is for phase II, and independent research (D) isn't a nurse's role as they don't prescribe, making C the primary responsibility.
A client with chronic back pain informs the nurse he has been receiving therapeutic touch in addition to his medications. What is the nurse's best classification of this client's treatment?
- A. Pharmacotherapy
- B. Drug-absence therapy
- C. Complementary therapy
- D. Biologic therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best classification is C: 'Complementary therapy.' Page 4 defines therapeutic touch as a nonconventional complement to pharmacotherapy, unlike A (drug-based), B (not a term), or D (biologics). The text distinguishes these therapies, confirming C as accurate per page 20.
Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug have both class 2 and class 3 activity?
- A. Amiodarone
- B. Adenosine
- C. Sotalol
- D. Verapamil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C' is correct because sotalol combines Class II (beta-blocker) and Class III (potassium channel block) actions, per pharmacology. 'A' (amiodarone) is multi-class but not purely II+III. 'B' (adenosine) is unclassified. 'D' (verapamil) is Class IV. Sotalol's dual effect is specific.
Prednisolone increases the risk of tendon damage/rupture when taken with fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: True (Choice A) is correct; corticosteroids like prednisolone weaken tendons, and fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin independently increase rupture risk, synergistically heightening danger when combined. False (Choice B) denies this established interaction, making A the answer. No C or D options exist, so the format adjusts accordingly.
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