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After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
- B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
- C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
- D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.
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The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use?
- A. I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the last year.
- B. I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital.
- C. I've been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest-wall pain.
- D. I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.' This statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use because an increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator suggests an exacerbation of asthma. The patient should be educated on recognizing worsening symptoms and the appropriate actions to take. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to asthma exacerbation or the need for medication teaching, making them incorrect. Choice A reflects a lack of recent acute asthma attacks, while choice B describes shortness of breath unrelated to medication use. Choice C mentions Tylenol use for chest-wall pain, which is not indicative of asthma exacerbation or medication teaching needs.
The pediatric nurse caring for a 3-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) prepares a home care teaching plan for the caregivers on discharge. Which items will the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Apply splints and braces to facilitate muscle control.
- B. Buy toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities.
- C. Encourage the child to perform self-care tasks.
- D. Use skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When developing a discharge teaching plan for a child with cerebral palsy (CP), the nurse should focus on strategies to enhance the child's independence and functional abilities. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions to include in the teaching plan for a child with CP. Applying splints and braces can help facilitate muscle control and improve body functioning. Buying toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities can promote engagement and development. Encouraging the child to perform self-care tasks fosters independence and skill development. However, the use of skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control is not typically a part of routine care for pediatric patients with CP. These medications are usually reserved for specific situations and are not a standard component of home care teaching plans for children with CP.
A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient
complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any
kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
- A. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
- B. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
- C. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
- D. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with the peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of
inadequate tissue perfusion. Ischemic rest pain is more worrisome; it refers to pain in the
extremity that is due to a combination of PVD and inadequate perfusion. Ischemic rest
pain often is exacerbated by poor cardiac output. The condition is often partially or fully
relieved by placing the extremity in a dependent position, so that perfusion is enhanced by
the effects of gravity.
The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation is 88%.
- B. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute when lying flat.
- D. Pain level is 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation is 88%.' Following a thoracentesis, oxygen saturation should improve. A saturation of 88% suggests a potential complication like pneumothorax. While the other assessment findings are important, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. High blood pressure and respiratory rate may also need attention, but the immediate concern is the oxygen saturation level. Pain level, though significant for the patient's comfort, takes lower priority compared to the potential life-threatening issue of hypoxia.
What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
- A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
- B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
- C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
- D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.