After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?
- A. Closed chest drainage
- B. A tracheostomy
- C. A mediastinal tube
- D. Percussion vibration and drainage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.
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While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
- C. Elevated pulse rate
- D. Decreased temperature
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
- A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
- B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
- C. Identification of peripheral pulses
- D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.
In a brief treatment program for a client who was raped, what is a realistic short-term goal?
- A. Identify all psychosocial problems.
- B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors.
- C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear.
- D. Verbalize feelings about the event.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, a realistic short-term goal for the client who was raped and starting a brief treatment program is to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal promotes the expression of emotions, which is crucial in the healing process. Identifying all psychosocial problems is too broad and not typically achievable in a brief treatment program. Eliminating the client's enticing behaviors is not a suitable short-term goal as the focus should be on emotional recovery. While resolving feelings of trauma and fear is important, verbalizing feelings about the event is a more specific and achievable goal in the short term.
Which task should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse?
- A. Inserting a Foley catheter
- B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
- C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
- D. Initiating a blood transfusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A licensed practical nurse should not initiate a blood transfusion. LPNs can assist with transfusions and verify ID numbers but should not be assigned to initiate the procedure. Inserting Foley catheters, discontinuing nasogastric tubes, and obtaining sputum specimens are within the scope of practice for LPNs. Therefore, options A, B, and C are tasks that LPNs can perform, making them incorrect choices.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
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