After a client with ascites due to liver cirrhosis undergoes a paracentesis, what should the nurse do post-procedure?
- A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Position the client flat on their back
- D. Administer a dose of furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood pressure and heart rate. Post-paracentesis, there is a risk of hypotension due to sudden fluid shift. Monitoring BP and HR is crucial to detect and manage any hemodynamic changes promptly. Encouraging fluid intake (choice A) may exacerbate ascites. Positioning flat (choice C) may lead to hypotension. Administering furosemide (choice D) without monitoring vital signs can worsen hypotension.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the client to describe what sign or symptom?
- A. Burning pain on swallowing
- B. Regurgitation of undigested food
- C. Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction
- D. Chronic parotid abscesses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer B (Regurgitation of undigested food):
1. Esophageal diverticulum is a pouch-like protrusion in the esophageal wall, causing difficulty in swallowing.
2. Due to the diverticulum, food may get trapped and regurgitated, leading to regurgitation of undigested food.
3. This symptom is characteristic of esophageal diverticulum and indicates an abnormality in the esophageal functioning.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Burning pain on swallowing - Not a typical symptom of esophageal diverticulum; more indicative of conditions like GERD.
C: Symptoms mimicking a myocardial infarction - Unrelated to esophageal diverticulum and more suggestive of cardiac issues.
D: Chronic parotid abscesses - Not associated with esophageal diverticulum, as parotid abscesses involve the salivary glands.
During a home visit, the nurse should evaluate the adequacy of a client's COPD treatment by assessing for which primary symptom?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Unilateral diminished breath sounds
- D. Edema of the ankles
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a primary symptom of COPD due to impaired airflow. Assessing dyspnea helps determine the effectiveness of COPD treatment. Tachycardia (B) may occur but is not a primary symptom. Unilateral diminished breath sounds (C) suggest other conditions, not COPD. Edema of the ankles (D) is more indicative of heart failure.
A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this case is pancreatic cancer (Choice C) based on the constellation of symptoms including weight loss, jaundice, palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. These findings are indicative of a pancreatic head mass causing obstruction of the common bile duct, leading to jaundice and elevated liver enzymes. Gallstones (Choice A) typically present with colicky pain, not a palpable mass. Hepatitis (Choice B) would present with different liver enzyme patterns and usually lacks a palpable mass. Primary biliary cirrhosis (Choice D) typically presents with pruritus and fatigue, not a palpable mass and jaundice.
A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia point to diabetes.
Step 2: Hyperglycemia and ketonuria suggest uncontrolled diabetes.
Step 3: Onset in a 30-year-old woman is more common in Type 1 diabetes.
Step 4: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to insulin deficiency.
Step 5: Treatment for Type 1 diabetes involves insulin therapy.
Summary:
- Choice B (Type 2 diabetes) is less likely due to the acute presentation and ketonuria.
- Choice C (Diabetes insipidus) does not involve hyperglycemia or ketonuria.
- Choice D (Hyperthyroidism) does not typically present with hyperglycemia and ketonuria.
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothyroidism. The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance are classic signs of hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH and low free T4 levels indicate primary hypothyroidism. TSH is high due to the pituitary gland trying to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones, but the thyroid gland is unable to do so. Hyperthyroidism (choice B) would present with opposite symptoms and lab values. Thyroiditis (choice C) typically presents with transient hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. Thyroid cancer (choice D) is less common and typically does not present with these typical hypothyroid symptoms and lab findings.