Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions

Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Related

Review Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions related questions and content

After attending an educational program, the nurse understaanbidrbs.c othma/tte swt hich the following situations would require an ethics consultation?

  • A. Conflict has occurred between the primary care provid er and family regarding treatment decisions. A family conference is held, and the family and primary care provider agree to a treatment plan that includes aggres sive treatment for 24 hours followed by re-evaluation.
  • B. Family members disagree as to a patient’s course of tre atment. The patient has designated a healthcare proxy and has a written advancaebi rdb.icroemc/tteivste .
  • C. A postoperative coronary artery bypass surgery patient was successfully resuscitated after sustaining a cardiopulmonary arrest i n the operating room The patient who is now not responding to treatment has a written advance directive and has a life partner at the bedside.
  • D. Patient with multiple trauma and is not responding to treatment. No family members are known, and care is considered futile.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because the situation involves a patient with multiple trauma who is not responding to treatment and has no known family members. This indicates a complex ethical dilemma where the medical team may be unsure about the appropriate course of action.

Step 2: In this scenario, an ethics consultation is necessary to help guide decision-making regarding the care of the patient. The lack of available family members complicates decision-making, and the consideration of care as futile adds another layer of complexity.

Step 3: An ethics consultation can provide a structured framework for evaluating the situation, considering ethical principles such as beneficence, non-maleficence, autonomy, and justice. It can help the healthcare team navigate the ethical considerations and make a well-informed decision in the best interest of the patient.

Summary:
Choice A: While conflicts between the primary care provider and family may warrant discussions, the agreement on a treatment plan does not necessarily require an ethics consultation.
Choice B: Disagreement

You may also like to solve these questions

The nurse is concerned that a patient is at increased risk of developing a pulmonary embolus and develops a plan of care for prevention to include whic h intervention?

  • A. Antiseptic oral care
  • B. Bed rest with head of bed elevated
  • C. Coughing and deep breathing
  • D. Mobility
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. Maintaining mobility helps prevent blood stasis, a leading factor in the development of pulmonary embolism. Movement promotes circulation, reducing the risk of blood clots.

A: Antiseptic oral care is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to preventing pulmonary embolism.
B: Bed rest with head of bed elevated can actually increase the risk of clots due to immobility.
C: Coughing and deep breathing are beneficial for preventing respiratory complications but do not address the underlying cause of pulmonary embolism.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving continuous norepinephrine (Levophed) IV infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?

  • A. Heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
  • B. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg.
  • C. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
  • D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a low Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) indicates inadequate perfusion, which may require adjusting the norepinephrine infusion rate to increase blood pressure. A: A heart rate of 58 beats/minute is within a normal range and may not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. C: Elevated Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR) may be an expected response to norepinephrine and does not necessarily indicate a need for adjustment. D: A low Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP) may indicate fluid volume deficit but does not directly relate to the need for adjusting norepinephrine infusion rate.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?

  • A. “Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.”
  • B. “Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.”
  • C. “You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.”
  • D. “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.”
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.” This response is the best choice as it provides a balanced and accurate explanation to the patient. Here's the rationale:
1. Hemodialysis is often used as a temporary measure to support kidney function while allowing time for the kidneys to recover.
2. Acute kidney injury can be reversible in some cases, especially if the underlying cause is identified and treated promptly.
3. Recovery time varies for each individual, and it can indeed take several months for kidney function to improve.
4. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
- A is overly pessimistic and does not consider the potential for recovery.
- B provides a specific timeframe that may not be accurate for all patients.
- C is not a reliable indicator of kidney function recovery and may lead to confusion.

A 22-year-old patient who experienced a near-drowning accident in a local pool, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which assessment will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period?

  • A. Auscultate heart sounds.
  • B. Palpate peripheral pulses.
  • C. Auscultate breath sounds.
  • D. Check pupil reaction to light.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate breath sounds. After a near-drowning incident, the main concern is potential respiratory complications such as aspiration pneumonia or pulmonary edema. Auscultating breath sounds will help the nurse assess for any signs of respiratory distress or complications. This assessment is crucial for early detection and intervention.

A: Auscultating heart sounds is important but not as crucial as assessing breath sounds in this scenario.
B: Palpating peripheral pulses is important for circulation assessment but does not address the immediate concern of respiratory complications.
D: Checking pupil reaction to light is more relevant for neurological assessment and not as critical as assessing breathing in this situation.

The constant noise of a ventilator, monitor alarms, and inf usion pumps predisposes the patient to what form of stress?

  • A. Anxiety
  • B. Pain
  • C. Powerlessness
  • D. Sensory overload
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sensory overload. Constant noise from medical equipment can overwhelm the patient's senses, leading to sensory overload. This can result in increased stress levels, difficulty concentrating, and overall discomfort. Anxiety (A) is related to worry and fear, but in this context, the primary stressor is sensory overload, not anxiety. Pain (B) is a physical sensation, not directly related to the sensory overload caused by noise. Powerlessness (C) refers to a lack of control or influence, which is not the primary form of stress induced by constant noise. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly correlates with the impact of the noise on the patient's sensory perception.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.