After checking the client's gag reflex following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), which action should the nurse take?
- A. Taking the client's vital signs
- B. Giving the client a drink of water
- C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat
- D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), the nurse's priority is to assess the client's airway by checking the gag reflex. Once this assessment is done, the next step is to take the client's vital signs to monitor for any signs of complications such as bleeding or changes in respiratory status. Giving the client water immediately after the procedure may not be appropriate, as the client may still have a compromised gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Monitoring for a sore throat is important but not the immediate priority post-procedure. Being alert to complaints of heartburn is relevant for assessing the client's symptoms but is not the priority immediately after checking the gag reflex.
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A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?
- A. 2 mg/dL
- B. 18 mg/dL
- C. 25 mg/dL
- D. 35 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
- A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
- B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
- C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
- D. Renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).
The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
- B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
- C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.
A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Limit your intake of food high in animal protein.
- B. Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake.
- C. A and B
- D. Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.
A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lipiduria
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.