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The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Give intravenous (IV) calcium gluconate.
- B. Withhold the drug and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Administer the dose as prescribed.
- D. Recheck the vital signs in 30 minutes and then administer the dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat atrial flutter. The vital signs obtained are within normal range for this medication. A heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are not contraindications for administering verapamil. Option A is incorrect as calcium gluconate is not indicated in this situation. Option B is incorrect because the vital signs are stable and do not warrant withholding the medication. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration of verapamil based on the vital signs provided.
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The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on which nursing problem?
- A. Knowledge deficit regarding impending surgery.
- B. Ineffective management of treatment regimen.
- C. Activity intolerance related to postoperative pain.
- D. Noncompliance with prescribed exercise plan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Activity intolerance is a priority nursing problem postoperatively due to pain.
2. Postoperative pain can limit the client's ability to perform activities.
3. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial for promoting recovery and preventing complications.
4. Delaying the teaching session helps the nurse focus on managing pain first.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Choice A: Knowledge deficit can be addressed after managing immediate postoperative issues.
- Choice B: Treatment regimen management is important but may not be as urgent as addressing activity intolerance related to pain.
- Choice D: Noncompliance with exercise plan can be addressed once the client's pain and activity intolerance are under control.
When it is noted that a patient’s endotracheal tube is not se cured tightened, he respiratory care practitioner assists the nurse in taping the tube. After the tu be is retaped, the nurse auscultates the patient’s lungs and notes that the breath sounds over the left lung fields are absent. The nurse suspects is the cause of this finding?
- A. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus.
- B. The patient has a left pneumothorax.
- C. The patient has aspirated secretions during the proceduarbeir.b .com/test
- D. The stethoscope earpiece is clogged with wax.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus. When the endotracheal tube is not secured properly and is retaped, there is a possibility that it may have migrated into the right mainstem bronchus, leading to absent breath sounds in the left lung fields. This condition is known as endobronchial intubation. In such cases, ventilation primarily occurs in the right lung, resulting in decreased or absent breath sounds on the contralateral side. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not explain the absence of breath sounds over the left lung fields in this specific scenario.
Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by
- A. obstruction of the flow of urine.
- B. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion.
- C. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output.
- D. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postrenal acute kidney injury is caused by obstruction of urine flow, leading to pressure build-up in the kidneys and subsequent damage. Obstructions can be due to conditions such as kidney stones, tumors, or enlarged prostate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they relate to pre-renal and intrinsic renal causes of acute kidney injury, not specifically postrenal obstruction. B refers to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, C to low volume or poor heart function affecting kidney perfusion, and D to direct damage to kidney tissue, which do not characterize postrenal etiology.
A patient’s vital signs are pulse 87, respirations 24, BP of 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 4.7 L/min. The patient’s stroke volume is ______ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 54
- B. 64
- C. 74
- D. 84
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The stroke volume is calculated by dividing the cardiac output by the heart rate. Given the cardiac output of 4.7 L/min and a heart rate of 87 bpm, the stroke volume is 54 mL (4700 mL/87 bpm ≈ 54 mL). Therefore, choice A (54) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated stroke volume based on the provided cardiac output and heart rate.
The nurse is caring for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. Suction the patient.
- B. Administer oxygen via face mask.
- C. Place the patient in a high Fowler’s position.
- D. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern characterized by periods of apnea followed by deep and rapid breathing. The nurse should document this pattern accurately. Option A is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated. Option B may worsen the respiratory pattern. Option C is not specifically related to addressing the breathing pattern.