Nokea
After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?
- A. Determine the etiology of the problem.
- B. Prioritize nursing care interventions.
- C. Plan appropriate interventions.
- D. Collaborate with the client to set goals.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.
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A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
- A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
- B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
- C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
- D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?
- A. A word whispered by the nurse 30cm from the ear
- B. A number traced on the palm of the hand
- C. The vibration of a tuning fork placed on the foot
- D. A familiar object placed in the hand
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.
A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
- B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
- C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
- D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.
A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider's office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?
- A. Fat
- B. Fluid
- C. Flatus
- D. Hernias
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.