Nokea
After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of pathogenicity are the clinic presentations of this disease connected with?
- A. Exotoxin B.Hemolysin C.Endotoxin D.Plasmocoagulase E.Fibrinolysin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Exotoxin. Botulism is caused by the exotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. The symptoms described - diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness - are all consistent with botulism due to the neurotoxic effects of the exotoxin. The exotoxin interferes with neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis and the symptoms mentioned. The other choices (B, C, D, E) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the pathogenic mechanism of botulism and do not explain the specific clinical manifestations observed in this case.
You may also like to solve these questions
For family Togaviridae is true that
- A. they have helical type of symmetry
- B. they have non-segmented (-)dsRNA
- C. they have non-segmented (+)ssRNA
- D. they are non-enveloped viruses
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Togaviridae is a family of viruses known to have non-segmented (+)ssRNA as their genetic material.
Step 2: The positive sense RNA means that the viral RNA can be directly translated into proteins by host machinery.
Step 3: This RNA genome acts as mRNA, allowing for immediate translation of viral proteins.
Step 4: Therefore, choice C is correct as it accurately describes the genetic nature of Togaviridae.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have helical symmetry.
- Choice B is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have non-segmented (-)dsRNA.
- Choice D is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses are enveloped viruses.
Which of the following viruses could be reactivated under immunosuppressive therapy?
- A. Virus Parotitidis
- B. Rubella virus
- C. Influenza A
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.
Which of the following stains is the most widely used differential stain in hematology laboratories?
- A. Carbolfuchsin stain
- B. Wright’s stain
- C. Ziehl-Neelson stain
- D. Kinyoun stain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kinyoun stain. This stain is the most widely used differential stain in hematology labs because it is specifically designed for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It differentiates these bacteria from others based on their cell wall composition. Carbolfuchsin stain (A) is used for acid-fast bacteria in microbiology. Wright's stain (B) is used for blood cell morphology. Ziehl-Neelsen stain (C) is also used for acid-fast bacteria but is less commonly used compared to Kinyoun stain in hematology labs.
An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
- A. Fluconazole
- B. Streptomycin
- C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole.
1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis.
2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal.
3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal.
4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.
A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
- A. Gametocytes
- B. B.Shizontes
- C. C.Merozoites
- D. E.Sporozoites
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites