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After coronary artery bypass graft surgery a patient is transported to the surgical intensive care unit at noon and placed on mechanical ventilation. How sh ould the nurse interpret the patient’s initial arterial blood gas levels? pH 7.31 PaCO 48 mm Hg Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L PaO 115 mm Hg O saturation 99%
- A. Normal arterial blood gas levels with a high oxygen le vel
- B. Partly compensated respiratory acidosis, normal oxygen
- C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with high oxygen laebvirbe.lcso m/test
- D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis; hyperoxygenated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partly compensated respiratory acidosis, normal oxygen. The pH of 7.31 indicates acidosis, the PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg shows respiratory acidosis, and the bicarbonate level of 22 mEq/L is slightly elevated, indicating the kidneys are compensating. The PaO2 of 115 mm Hg and oxygen saturation of 99% are normal, ruling out hypoxemia. Therefore, the patient is experiencing partly compensated respiratory acidosis.
A: Normal arterial blood gas levels with a high oxygen level - Incorrect. The pH is low, indicating acidosis, which is not normal.
C: Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with high oxygen level - Incorrect. Metabolic acidosis would have a primary issue with bicarbonate levels, which is not the case here.
D: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis; hyperoxygenated - Incorrect. The oxygen levels are normal, ruling out hyperoxygenation.
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Acute kidney injury from postrenal etiology is caused by
- A. obstruction of the flow of urine.
- B. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion.
- C. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output.
- D. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postrenal acute kidney injury is caused by obstruction of urine flow, leading to pressure build-up in the kidneys and subsequent damage. Obstructions can be due to conditions such as kidney stones, tumors, or enlarged prostate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they relate to pre-renal and intrinsic renal causes of acute kidney injury, not specifically postrenal obstruction. B refers to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, C to low volume or poor heart function affecting kidney perfusion, and D to direct damage to kidney tissue, which do not characterize postrenal etiology.
Which of the following situations may result in a low cardiac output and low cardiac index? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Exercise
- B. Hypovolemia
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Certainly. Hypovolemia, or low blood volume, can lead to low cardiac output and cardiac index because the heart has less blood to pump, resulting in reduced circulation. Exercise typically increases cardiac output to meet increased demand. Myocardial infarction may reduce cardiac output temporarily, but not consistently. Shock, a condition where the body's tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, can lead to low cardiac output, making it a possible cause.
What is the best way to monitor agitation and effectivenes s of treating it in the critically ill patient?
- A. Confusion Assessment Method (CAM-ICU)
- B. FACES assessment tool
- C. Glasgow Coma Scale
- D. Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS). RASS is specifically designed to monitor agitation and sedation levels in critically ill patients, providing a standardized and objective assessment. It includes clear descriptors for different levels of agitation and sedation, allowing for consistent monitoring and treatment adjustments. CAM-ICU is mainly used for delirium assessment, not agitation. FACES assessment tool is more appropriate for pain assessment. Glasgow Coma Scale is focused on assessing level of consciousness, not agitation specifically. By using RASS, healthcare providers can accurately track agitation levels and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions in managing agitation in critically ill patients.
A hospital interviews two different candidates for a position in the ICU. Both candidates have around 10 years of experience working in the ICU. Both have excellent interpersonal skills and highly positive references. One, however, has certification in critical care nursing. Which of the following is the most compelling and accurate reason for the hospital to hire the candidate with certification?
- A. The certified nurse will have more knowledge and expertise.
- B. The certified nurse will behave more ethically.
- C. The certified nurse will be more caring toward patients.
- D. The certified nurse will work more collaboratively with other nurses.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The certified nurse will have more knowledge and expertise. Certification in critical care nursing indicates that the candidate has undergone specialized training and passed a standardized exam, demonstrating a higher level of knowledge and skill in critical care practices compared to a non-certified candidate. This certification ensures that the nurse has met specific competency standards in critical care, making them better equipped to handle complex situations in the ICU.
Summary:
- Choice B (ethical behavior) and Choice C (caring towards patients) are subjective qualities that can be present in both certified and non-certified nurses.
- Choice D (collaboration with other nurses) is not directly related to certification but can be influenced by the individual's interpersonal skills.
- Ultimately, the certification in critical care nursing provides concrete evidence of the candidate's advanced knowledge and expertise, making them the most compelling choice for the hospital to hire.
The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old patient who is intubated and on a ventilator following extensive abdominal surgery. Although the patient is respo nsive, the nurse is not able to read the patient’s lips as the patient attempts to mouth the words. Which of the following assessment tools would be the most appropriate for the nu rse to use when assessing the patient’s pain level? (Select all that apply.)
- A. The FACES scale
- B. Pain Intensity Scale
- C. The PQRST method
- D. The Visual Analogue Scale
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The FACES scale. This scale uses facial expressions to assess pain, making it suitable for a patient who is unable to verbalize. The nurse can show the patient a series of faces depicting varying levels of pain and ask them to point to the one that best represents their pain level. This method is non-verbal and easy for patients to understand.
The other choices are incorrect:
B: The Pain Intensity Scale requires the patient to rate their pain on a numerical scale, which may be difficult for a non-verbal patient.
C: The PQRST method is a mnemonic for assessing pain characteristics (provocation, quality, region, severity, timing), but it requires patient communication.
D: The Visual Analogue Scale involves marking a point on a line to indicate pain intensity, which is not suitable for a non-verbal patient.