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After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?
- A. The new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption.
- B. Enfamil® Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea.
- C. The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine.
- D. Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.
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A 6-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis has recently developed projectile vomiting. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the infant is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Weak cry without tears.
- B. Bulging fontanel.
- C. Visible peristaltic wave.
- D. Palpable mass in the right upper quadrant.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In infants, a weak cry without tears is a classic sign of dehydration. Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands, and reduced tear production is a result of dehydration. This assessment finding should alert the nurse to the infant's dehydration status, requiring prompt intervention to prevent further complications.
A 6-month-old child who had a cleft-lip repair has elbow restraints in place. What nursing intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Obtain the healthcare provider's advice as to when the restraints should be removed.
- B. Remove restraints one at a time to provide range of motion exercises.
- C. Record observation of the restraints q2h and ensure that they are in place at all times.
- D. Remove restraints q4h for 30 minutes and place gloves on the child's hands.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Albumin 25% IV is prescribed for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Reduction of fever.
- C. Improved caloric intake.
- D. Reduction of edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduction of edema. Albumin helps reduce edema by increasing oncotic pressure, drawing fluid back into the blood vessels. In nephrotic syndrome, there is an abnormal loss of protein in the urine, leading to decreased oncotic pressure and fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Administering albumin helps restore the oncotic pressure, reducing edema, which is a desirable effect of the medication.
A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
- B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside
- C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
- D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.
During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
- C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
- D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.