After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?
- A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
- B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
- C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
- D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?
- A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
- B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
- C. Unless treated, all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
- D. All children who have been sexually abused have the same needs, regardless of gender.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.
In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:
- A. feelings about what has been described
- B. thoughts about what has been described
- C. possible solutions to the problem
- D. intent in sharing the description
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.
Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
- A. Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.
- B. Make a list of things she can do to help improve her husband.
- C. Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.
- D. Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
A client in the cardiac step-down unit requires suctioning for excess mucous secretions. The nurse should be most careful to monitor the client for which dysrhythmia during this procedure?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Premature ventricular beats
- D. Heart block
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During suctioning, a vagal response can be triggered leading to bradycardia. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for this potential dysrhythmia. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely during suctioning and is not the priority. Premature ventricular beats (Choice C) and heart block (Choice D) can occur but are less common compared to bradycardia in this situation.