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After Natasha's husband passed away two months ago, she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?
- A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
- B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
- C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
- D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is common for major depressive disorder to be triggered by significant life events, such as the sudden loss of a loved one. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is correct. Bereavement and major depressive disorder are related but distinct conditions, and while mourning can be intense, it is generally considered a normal response to loss. Antidepressant medications can be beneficial in treating depression, including cases triggered by a significant loss.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which therapeutic communication statement might a healthcare professional use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?
- A. I know you mention hearing voices, but I cannot hear them.
- B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
- C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
- D. Please ask the voices to leave you alone for now.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the most appropriate therapeutic communication statement in this scenario. By asking the patient what the voices are telling them, the healthcare professional encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings, aiding in understanding their altered thought processes. This approach can help establish a therapeutic relationship and provide valuable insight into the patient's experiences.
A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar disorder, a lower dosage of lithium is often prescribed to prevent toxicity and maintain stability while minimizing side effects. Lower doses are typically used once the patient has achieved mood stabilization to reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with long-term lithium use.
Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, "I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love." How should Carolina respond to this news?
- A. That sounds exciting; would you be willing to visit and show me the app?
- B. At this time, there is no real evidence that the app can replace our therapy.
- C. I am not sure that is a good idea right now; we are so close to progress.
- D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carolina should respond by showing interest in the app, as it can help maintain the therapeutic relationship and provide an opportunity to evaluate the app's effectiveness together. By asking the patient to visit and show the app, Carolina demonstrates openness to exploring new tools that the patient finds helpful, while also ensuring that the patient's well-being remains a priority. This approach fosters communication, allows for a collaborative discussion on how the app fits into the patient's treatment plan, and may potentially address any concerns or misconceptions the patient has about the app replacing traditional therapy.
Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:
- A. Favorable with medication
- B. In the relapse stage
- C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
- D. To have a less positive outcome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Individuals with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia typically have a less positive outcome or prognosis. This is because early onset schizophrenia is often associated with a more severe form of the illness and can lead to greater functional impairment in various aspects of life, including academic and social functioning. Therefore, the prognosis for Gilbert, given his presentation and age of onset, would be considered to have a less positive outcome.
Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.