After Natasha's husband passed away two months ago, she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?
- A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
- B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
- C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
- D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: It is common for major depressive disorder to be triggered by significant life events, such as the sudden loss of a loved one. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is correct. Bereavement and major depressive disorder are related but distinct conditions, and while mourning can be intense, it is generally considered a normal response to loss. Antidepressant medications can be beneficial in treating depression, including cases triggered by a significant loss.
You may also like to solve these questions
Tomas is a 21-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Tomas's nurse recognizes that self-medicating with excessive alcohol is common in this disease and can co-occur along with:
- A. Generally good health despite the mental illness.
- B. An aversion to drinking fluids.
- C. Anxiety and depression.
- D. The ability to express his needs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with schizophrenia often turn to alcohol as a form of self-medication to manage co-occurring symptoms of anxiety and depression. This coping mechanism can exacerbate the underlying mental health condition and hinder proper treatment. Recognizing and addressing these co-occurring issues are essential in providing holistic care for individuals with schizophrenia.
April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been becoming increasingly agitated and losing control in the day room. Time-out has proven to be ineffective for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother mentions using time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse acknowledges that:
- A. Time-out is a crucial aspect of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective intervention.
- C. April finds enjoyment in time-out and misbehaves to seek solitude.
- D. Time-out will have to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The scenario describes how April's behavior is not improving with the frequent use of time-out, indicating that it is no longer an effective intervention. When a strategy such as time-out loses its effectiveness due to overuse, it is crucial to explore alternative therapeutic measures to address the underlying issues effectively.
Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.
James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for the day shift and anxiously reports, "Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me." Which response would be most therapeutic?
- A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
- B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
- C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
- D. That must have been very frightening, but we'll check on you at night and you'll be safe.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most therapeutic response acknowledges the patient's emotional state and invites further discussion about their experience. By saying, 'You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night,' the nurse shows empathy and openness, providing a supportive environment for the patient to express their feelings and perceptions.
A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar disorder, a lower dosage of lithium is often prescribed to prevent toxicity and maintain stability while minimizing side effects. Lower doses are typically used once the patient has achieved mood stabilization to reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with long-term lithium use.
Nokea