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After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?
- A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
- B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
- C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
- D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.
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After receiving hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment for a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium level.
- B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. During hemodialysis, there is a risk of potassium shifting, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if not properly managed. Assessing the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications. While assessing blood pressure, checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and monitoring for signs of infection are important aspects of care for a client with chronic kidney disease, monitoring potassium levels takes precedence due to its immediate life-threatening potential post-dialysis.
A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.
A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Monitor heart rate regularly
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase fluid intake to avoid dehydration
- D. Take the medication with food
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?
- A. Increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria.
- B. Take the medication with meals to prevent GI upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight exposure while taking the medication.
- D. Report any changes in the color of urine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.