After reviewing the information provided in the client's medical record, which of the following complications should the nurse identify that the client is at risk of developing?
- A. Preeclampsia; uric acid
- B. Gestational diabetes; glucose
- C. Eclampsia; magnesium
- D. Placenta previa; hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gestational diabetes risk is linked to glucose intolerance, detectable by serum glucose levels, causing complications like macrosomia. Preeclampsia involves hypertension, not uric acid alone; eclampsia isn't tied to magnesium levels; placenta previa relates to prior surgeries, not hemoglobin.
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When assessing a woman in her first trimester, which emotional response would the nurse most likely expect to find?
- A. Ambivalence
- B. Emotional lability
- C. Introversion
- D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Emotional lability is typical in the first trimester from hormonal changes causing irritability or crying. Ambivalence is less common unless conflicted, introversion isn't pregnancy-specific, and acceptance grows over time.
On the first prenatal visit, an examination of the woman's internal genitalia reveals a bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Hegar's sign
- D. Homan's sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina from increased blood flow, seen early in pregnancy. Goodell's is cervical softening, Hegar's is uterine softening, and Homan's indicates thrombosis, not pregnancy.
A client comes to the prenatal clinic for her first visit. When determining the client's estimated due date, the nurse understands which method is the most accurate.
- A. Nagele's rule
- B. Ultrasound
- C. Gestation wheel
- D. Birth calculator
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ultrasound in the first trimester measures fetal size accurately for due date estimation, unlike Nagele's rule, gestation wheel, or calculators, which rely on less precise menstrual data or assumptions.
A pregnant client in her second trimester has a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL. The nurse interprets this as indicating
- A. Hemodilution of pregnancy
- B. A multiple gestation pregnancy
- C. Greater-than-expected weight gain
- D. Iron-deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hemodilution of pregnancy occurs as plasma volume increases more than red blood cell mass, lowering hemoglobin to 10.5-14 g/dL in the second trimester, which includes 11 g/dL. Multiple gestation may raise hemoglobin, weight gain doesn't affect it, and iron-deficiency anemia typically shows lower hemoglobin with symptoms like fatigue.
During a vaginal exam, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is softened. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Ortolani's sign
- B. Chadwick's sign
- C. Goodell's sign
- D. Hegar's sign
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hegar's sign is softening of the lower uterine segment, felt early in pregnancy. Ortolani's tests infant hips, Chadwick's is cervical discoloration, and Goodell's is cervical softening, not uterine.