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After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
- A. Patient who was extubated in the morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C).
- B. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for sleep apnea whose respiratory rate is 16.
- C. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post percutaneous coronary intervention and needs to void.
- D. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for venous thromboembolism and has a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 98 seconds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed.
A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT.
B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment.
C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.
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Which action is a priority for the nurse to take when the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient who has an arterial line in the left radial artery?
- A. Fast flush of the arterial line.
- B. Check the left hand for pallor.
- C. Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.
- D. Rezero the monitoring equipment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): When the low-pressure alarm sounds for a patient with an arterial line, the nurse should assess for cardiac dysrhythmias first. This is because a sudden drop in pressure could indicate a serious issue affecting the heart's ability to pump effectively. Identifying and addressing any cardiac dysrhythmias promptly is crucial for patient safety.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Fast flush of the arterial line - This would not address the underlying cause of the low-pressure alarm and may not be necessary.
B: Check the left hand for pallor - While assessing perfusion is important, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac issue.
D: Rezero the monitoring equipment - While important for accuracy, it is not the priority when the alarm indicates a potential cardiac concern.
Family assessment can be challenging and each nurse may obtain additional information regarding family structure and dynamics. What is the best way to share this information from shift to shift?
- A. Create an informal family information sheet that is kept on the bedside clipboard. That way, everyone can review it quickly when needed .
- B. Develop a standardized reporting form for family infora mbir ab. tc io om n/ te thst a t is incorporated into the patient’s medical record and updated as neede d.
- C. Require that the charge nurse have a detailed list of inf ormation about each patient and family member. Thus, someone on the unit is always knowledgeable about potential issues.
- D. Try to remember to discuss family structure and dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because developing a standardized reporting form for family information that is incorporated into the patient's medical record ensures consistency and accuracy in sharing vital details about family structure and dynamics from shift to shift. This method allows all healthcare providers to access the information easily and update it as needed, promoting continuity of care and comprehensive understanding of the family's needs.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because:
A: Creating an informal family information sheet may lead to inconsistencies in the information shared among healthcare providers and may not be updated regularly.
C: Requiring only the charge nurse to have detailed information may result in information silos and lack of accessibility for all team members.
D: Discussing family dynamics as part of the change-of-shift report may lead to important details being missed or forgotten, compromising the quality of care provided.
Which hemodynamic parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to determine the effectiveness of medications given to a patient to reduce left ventricular afterload?
- A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
- B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
- C. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
- D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic vascular resistance (SVR). SVR reflects the resistance the heart must overcome to pump blood into the systemic circulation. By monitoring SVR, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of medications aimed at reducing left ventricular afterload, as these medications work by dilating blood vessels and reducing resistance. An effective reduction in afterload would lead to a decrease in SVR.
A: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is an indicator of perfusion pressure but may not directly reflect changes in afterload.
C: Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is specific to the pulmonary circulation and not directly related to left ventricular afterload.
D: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left ventricular preload and filling pressures, not afterload.
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. T he primary care providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patienatb iirsb .hcoamv/itensgt difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following?
- A. Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation.
- B. Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the b edside by the respiratory therapist.
- C. Procedures performed in the operating room are associaabtirebd.c owmi/ttehs tf ewer complications.
- D. The greatest risk after a percutaneous tracheostomy is accidental decannulation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. This is because performing a tracheostomy in the operating room allows for better control of the environment, equipment, and expertise of the surgical team. In this setting, the risk of complications such as bleeding, infection, and injury to surrounding structures is minimized.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect:
A: Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation - This statement is not universally true and depends on individual patient factors. Timing of tracheostomy should be based on the patient's clinical condition and not a set timeline.
B: Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist - While percutaneous tracheostomy can be performed at the bedside, it is typically done by a trained physician or surgeon due to the potential risks and complications involved.
D: The greatest risk after a per
Ideally, by whom and when should an advance directive be developed?
- A. Family, if the patient is in critical condition.
- B. Patient as part of the hospital admission process.
- C. Patient before illness or impairment occurs.
- D. Patient’s healthcare surrogate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Advance directives should be made by the patient to reflect their wishes.
2. Developing it before illness ensures clarity and avoids confusion.
3. Patients may not be able to make informed decisions in critical conditions.
4. Family or surrogates may not accurately represent the patient's wishes.
Summary:
A - Family in critical condition may not know the patient's wishes.
B - Hospital admission process may be too late for clear decision-making.
D - Healthcare surrogate may not fully understand the patient's preferences.