TEAS 7 science practice questions

TEAS 7 science practice questions Related

Review TEAS 7 science practice questions related questions and content

After the Industrial Revolution, the population of peppered moths in England shifted towards more dark moths. This is an example of:

  • A. Artificial selection (selective breeding by humans for desired traits)
  • B. Natural selection acting on pre-existing variation
  • C. Punctuated equilibrium (rapid bursts of evolution)
  • D. Lamarckism (inheritance of acquired characteristics)
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The shift in the peppered moth population towards more dark moths in England after the Industrial Revolution exemplifies natural selection acting on pre-existing variation. Initially, light-colored moths were well-camouflaged against lichen-covered tree trunks, but with industrial pollution darkening the tree trunks, dark-colored moths gained a survival advantage. This change reflects how the environment favored dark moths over light ones, illustrating natural selection. The process illustrates how organisms with traits advantageous in a changing environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, leading to the prevalence of those traits in the population over time. The choices of artificial selection (A), punctuated equilibrium (C), and Lamarckism (D) are not applicable in this scenario. Artificial selection involves intentional breeding by humans, punctuated equilibrium refers to rapid bursts of evolution followed by periods of stability, and Lamarckism suggests the inheritance of acquired characteristics, none of which align with the observed shift in moth populations based on environmental changes.

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What is the name of the white blood cells that attack foreign invaders?

  • A. Phagocytes
  • B. Lymphocytes
  • C. Platelets
  • D. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Phagocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system by engulfing and digesting foreign invaders such as bacteria, viruses, and other harmful substances. They are part of the body's innate immune response and are essential for protecting the body against infections. Lymphocytes, on the other hand, are another type of white blood cell involved in the adaptive immune response, producing antibodies, and coordinating immune responses. Platelets are cell fragments involved in blood clotting, while red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is Phagocytes (Choice A) because they are specifically tasked with attacking and destroying foreign invaders in the body, distinguishing them from the other choices which have different functions within the immune system.

Which part of the male reproductive system is responsible for producing seminal fluid?

  • A. Bladder
  • B. Urethra
  • C. Prostate gland
  • D. Kidney
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the prostate gland (Choice C). The prostate gland, located near the bladder, is responsible for producing seminal fluid. This fluid, along with sperm from the testes, makes up semen. The bladder stores urine, the urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body, and the kidney filters waste from the blood to produce urine. The prostate gland's specific function is to secrete a milky, alkaline fluid that mixes with sperm during ejaculation to form semen. This fluid helps nourish and protect the sperm, aiding in their motility and viability. Therefore, the prostate gland plays a crucial role in male reproductive function by contributing to the composition and quality of semen, essential for fertility.

The ureters are paired tubes that transport urine from the:

  • A. Bladder to the urethra
  • B. Kidneys to the bladder
  • C. Urethra to the kidneys
  • D. Skin to the kidneys
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The ureters are responsible for carrying urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Once urine is produced in the kidneys, it travels down the ureters to be stored in the bladder until it is eliminated from the body through the urethra. Therefore, the correct answer is B, 'Kidneys to the bladder.' Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the function of the ureters in the urinary system. Choice A, 'Bladder to the urethra,' is incorrect because the ureters carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder, not from the bladder to the urethra. Choice C, 'Urethra to the kidneys,' is incorrect as the flow of urine is from the kidneys to the bladder via the ureters, not in the reverse direction. Choice D, 'Skin to the kidneys,' is unrelated to the urinary system; the ureters are not involved in transporting substances from the skin to the kidneys.

What is the Doppler effect, and how does it explain the shift in frequency of sound waves perceived by an observer?

  • A. It affects light waves, not sound waves.
  • B. It's the change in wave speed due to medium density.
  • C. It's the perceived change in frequency due to relative motion.
  • D. It's the bending of waves due to different mediums.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Doppler effect is the perceived change in frequency of a wave due to relative motion between the source of the wave and the observer. This phenomenon is commonly observed with sound waves, where the pitch of a sound appears higher as the source moves towards the observer and lower as the source moves away. Option A is incorrect as the Doppler effect primarily applies to sound waves, not light waves. Option B is incorrect because the Doppler effect is not about the change in wave speed due to medium density but rather a change in perceived frequency. Option D is incorrect as it describes wave bending due to different mediums, which is not the primary concept behind the Doppler effect. Therefore, option C accurately describes the Doppler effect and its application to the shift in frequency of sound waves perceived by an observer.

How do spindle fiber dynamics and microtubule attachment regulate cell cycle checkpoints?

  • A. Misaligned chromosomes fail to attach to microtubules, triggering a delay in anaphase onset.
  • B. The presence of unattached kinetochores on the centromeres sends a signal to pause cell cycle progression.
  • C. Microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization lead to the activation of checkpoint proteins.
  • D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A) Misaligned chromosomes fail to attach to microtubules, triggering a delay in anaphase onset: Proper attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers is essential for accurate segregation of genetic material during cell division. Misaligned chromosomes that fail to attach to microtubules can lead to delays in anaphase onset, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with division.

B) The presence of unattached kinetochores on the centromeres sends a signal to pause cell cycle progression: Kinetochores at the centromeres help attach chromosomes to spindle fibers. When kinetochores are unattached or improperly attached to microtubules, they signal the cell to pause cell cycle progression, ensuring proper chromosome alignment before division.

C) Microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization lead to the activation of checkpoint proteins: While microtubule dynamics are crucial for cell division, microtubule instability and rapid depolymerization can disrupt chromosome attachment. However, this mechanism is not directly related to the activation of cell cycle checkpoint proteins, making this statement incorrect.

Therefore, choices A and B accurately describe how spindle fiber dynamics and microtubule attachment regulate cell cycle checkpoints, making option D the correct answer.

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