Nokea
Alaric was diagnosed with minimal-change nephrotic syndrome; which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristics of the said disorder?
- A. Hypertension, edema, hematuria
- B. Hypertension, edema, proteinuria
- C. Gross hematuria, fever, proteinuria
- D. Poor appetite, edema, proteinuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Minimal-change nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by the presence of proteinuria, which is the excessive loss of protein in the urine. This leads to low levels of protein in the blood, causing edema (swelling) due to fluid accumulation in the tissues. In minimal-change nephrotic syndrome, hypertension (high blood pressure) is not a typical finding. Instead, patients often present with normal blood pressure levels. Additionally, hematuria (presence of blood in the urine) is not a common symptom of this disorder. Therefore, the key signs and symptoms characteristic of minimal-change nephrotic syndrome are edema, proteinuria, and the absence of hypertension.
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On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypocalcemia is the most common electrolyte disturbance that follows thyroid surgery, particularly after a partial thyroidectomy. This occurs due to inadvertent injury or removal of the parathyroid glands, which are responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body. The symptoms of hypocalcemia, such as muscle twitching, hyperirritability of the nervous system, numbness, and tingling, align with the client's presentation in this scenario. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like tetany or seizures. Therefore, the nurse's decision to notify the surgeon immediately is appropriate to address this electrolyte imbalance.
. A client with a suspected left sided heart failure is scheduled to undergo a multigated acquisition scan. Which of the following actions is required before undergoing the test?
- A. Diuretics are administered
- B. Client should avoid fluid intake 6 hours
- C. Client is medicated to relieve cough before the test
- D. Client is administered analgesics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before undergoing a multigated acquisition scan, a client with suspected left sided heart failure should be medicated to relieve cough. Coughing can disrupt the accuracy of the scan results by affecting the heart's movement and leading to motion artifacts. Therefore, it is essential to address any coughing issues before the test to ensure reliable and accurate imaging of the heart's function. The other options, such as administering diuretics, avoiding fluid intake, and administering analgesics, are not directly related to optimizing the imaging quality of the multigated acquisition scan for a client with suspected left sided heart failure.
When administering spironolactone (Aldactone) to a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomy, the nurse should instruct the client about which of the following possible adverse effects of the drug?
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Increased facial hair
- C. Menstrual irregularities
- D. Hair loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic and aldosterone antagonist that is commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and edema. One of its common side effects is hormonal effects due to its antiandrogenic properties. In women, spironolactone can lead to menstrual irregularities, including amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods) or breakthrough bleeding. Therefore, in a client who has had a unilateral adrenalectomy (removal of one adrenal gland), which can already disrupt hormonal balance, the nurse should educate the client about the potential for menstrual irregularities when taking spironolactone.
A nurse is teaching a parent about administration of iron supplements to a 7-month-old infant. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Administer the iron supplement with a dropper toward the side and to the back of the mouth
- B. Administer the iron supplement with feedings.
- C. Your infant's stools may look tarry green.
- D. Your infant may have some diarrhea initially.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administer the iron supplement with a dropper toward the side and to the back of the mouth: This instruction helps ensure that the iron supplement bypasses the taste buds on the front of the tongue, which may reduce the likelihood of a strong taste causing rejection or spitting out by the infant.
What is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet?
- A. 2 to 3 months
- B. 4 to 6 months
- C. When birth weight has tripled
- D. When tooth eruption has started
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends introducing solid foods into an infant's diet between 4 to 6 months of age. At this stage, most infants have developed the necessary motor skills to start eating solid foods, such as being able to sit up and hold their head steady. Additionally, their digestive system has matured enough to handle solid foods. Introducing solid foods too early, such as at 2 to 3 months (Option A), can increase the risk of digestive issues and allergies. Waiting for tooth eruption (Option D) is not a reliable indicator as some infants may begin teething earlier or later than others. Waiting for the birth weight to triple (Option C) is not necessary as infants can start on solid foods once they reach the appropriate developmental stage around 4 to 6 months.