Albert refuses his bedtime snack. This should alert the healthcare provider to assess for:
- A. Elevated serum bicarbonate and decreased blood pH.
- B. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected.
- C. Symptoms of hyperglycemia due to NPH insulin peak time.
- D. Presence of sugar in the urine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient like Albert refuses his bedtime snack, it can lead to hypoglycemia, especially if they are on medication such as insulin. Hypoglycemia can occur earlier than expected due to the lack of carbohydrate intake before bedtime. This situation warrants the healthcare provider to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the given scenario is more indicative of hypoglycemia than metabolic alkalosis. Choice C is incorrect as NPH insulin peak time is not directly related to skipping a bedtime snack. Choice D is incorrect as sugar in the urine typically indicates hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.
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Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
- A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
- B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
- C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
- D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
In a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse should expect which laboratory result?
- A. Increased calcium levels
- B. Decreased phosphorus levels
- C. Increased phosphorus levels
- D. Increased potassium levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone, leading to decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased phosphorus levels' (Choice C). Choice A, 'Increased calcium levels,' is incorrect because hypoparathyroidism is associated with low calcium levels. Choice B, 'Decreased phosphorus levels,' is incorrect as phosphorus levels are typically elevated in hypoparathyroidism. Choice D, 'Increased potassium levels,' is not directly related to hypoparathyroidism and is not an expected laboratory result in this condition.
The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being taught about managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will rotate my insulin injection sites to avoid tissue damage.
- B. I will monitor my blood glucose levels before each meal.
- C. I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy.
- D. I should carry a fast-acting carbohydrate with me at all times.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stating 'I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy' is incorrect. While fruits are healthy, they also contain natural sugars that can affect blood glucose levels. Portion control is crucial to managing blood glucose levels effectively. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate correct understanding. Rotating insulin injection sites helps prevent tissue damage, monitoring blood glucose levels before meals aids in managing diabetes effectively, and carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate is essential to treat hypoglycemia promptly.
For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
- A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
- B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
- C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
- D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
A client is admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase, the priority nursing action is to prepare to:
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously
- B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
- C. Correct the acidosis
- D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin intravenously is the priority nursing action in the acute phase of DKA. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake of glucose and inhibiting ketone production. Administering dextrose would be counterproductive as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Correcting acidosis is important but usually follows insulin administration. Applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action in the acute management of DKA.
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