Nokea
All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes.
- B. loss of reproductive ability.
- C. headaches.
- D. heart palpitations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The likelihood of fathering children does decrease with aging and decreased testosterone production, but men do not lose their ability to reproduce during the climacteric. Many men do not experience any physical symptoms of climacteric but some men do report hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations, among other symptoms.
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A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence by antagonizing opioid receptors. The other drugs do not address opioid overdose.
Chemotherapeutic agents often produce a degree of myelosuppression including leukopenia. Leukopenia does not present immediately but is delayed several days or weeks because:
- A. the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit are normal.
- B. red blood cells are affected first.
- C. folic acid levels are normal.
- D. the current white cell count is not affected by chemotherapy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Time is required to clear circulating cells before the effect that chemotherapeutic drugs have on precursor cell maturation in the bone marrow becomes evident.
A nurse who is assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment should focus on which of the following aspects of the assessment?
- A. agility
- B. speed
- C. body composition
- D. risk factors
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A health assessment should focus on possible risk factors of the client.
A patient is currently having a petit mal seizure in the clinic on the floor. Which of the following criteria has the highest priority in this situation?
- A. Provide a safe environment free of obstructions in the immediate area
- B. Call a code
- C. Contact the patient's physician
- D. Prevent excessive movement of the extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety should be the top concern about this patient.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is an opiate antagonist. It attaches to opiate receptors and blocks or reverses the action of narcotic analgesics. Choice 2 is incorrect because Labetalol is a beta blocker. Choice 3 is incorrect because Neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent. Choice 4 is incorrect because Thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent.