Nokea
All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:
- A. Kyphosis
- B. Scoliosis
- C. Thrombosis
- D. Lumbar lordosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.
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What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administering a bronchodilator
- B. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
- C. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.
Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
- A. Lyme disease
- B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- C. Syphilis
- D. Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Gastric residual volumes
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Urinary and stool output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.
What is the primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises?
- A. To improve cardiovascular fitness
- B. To prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures
- C. To increase respiratory function
- D. To enhance cognitive function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises is to prevent muscle atrophy and joint contractures. These exercises are crucial in maintaining joint mobility and muscle flexibility, especially in patients who are immobilized or have limited mobility. Improving cardiovascular fitness (Choice A) involves different types of exercises that target the heart and blood vessels, not specifically ROM exercises. Increasing respiratory function (Choice C) is typically achieved through breathing exercises and activities that enhance lung capacity. Enhancing cognitive function (Choice D) is usually addressed through cognitive exercises and activities that stimulate brain function.
At one minute after birth, an infant is crying, has a heart rate of 140, has acrocyanosis, resists the suction catheter, and keeps his arms extended and his legs flexed. What is the Apgar score?
- A. 4
- B. 6
- C. 8
- D. 10
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is based on five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a heart rate over 100 (2 points), is crying (2 points indicating good respiratory effort), resists the catheter (2 points for good reflex irritability), but has acrocyanosis (partial point deduction of 1). Thus, the Apgar score at one minute after birth would be 8. Choice A is incorrect as the given signs indicate a higher score. Choice B is incorrect as the signs described support a score above 6. Choice D is incorrect as it represents a perfect score which is not the case here due to acrocyanosis.