Nokea
All of the following are true about erysipelas EXCEPT
- A. facial and scalp manifestations occur in infants and the elderly
- B. it progresses to skin desquamation
- C. bacteremia common in the lower extremity manifestations
- D. fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erysipelas face, scalp, peeling, fever, sharp edge fit; bacteremia's rare, not common. Nurses mark this chronic skin truth.
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Caution should be exercised in the initiation of an ARNI in all of the following clinical scenarios except:
- A. Significant hyperkalaemia
- B. Significant renal dysfunction (eGFR <30 ml/min)
- C. Patient on a maximal dose ACE-inhibitor
- D. Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan) risks spike with hyperkalemia, renal flop (eGFR <30), ACE-I overlap, or low BP potassium, filtration, washout, and perfusion all teeter. NAFLD? No biggie liver fat doesn't sway ARNI's game. Clinicians greenlight this, dodging chronic cautions elsewhere.
Glibenclamide belongs to the class
- A. Sulphonylureas
- B. Thiazolidinediones
- C. Benzoic acid derivatives
- D. Biguanides
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glibenclamide's a sulphonylurea pumps insulin from beta cells, a classic diabetes fix. Thiazolidinediones tweak sensitivity, benzoic acids like repaglinide hit fast, biguanides like metformin curb liver glucose. It's a chronic pancreas prod, not a sensitivity or liver play nurses and pharmacists peg it for type 2's insulin lag, a distinct class with a clear job.
A 79 year old woman is told by his GP that she has postural hypertension. Which of the following BP is she likely to be having?
- A. A drop of 15 mmHg/10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing
- B. A drop of 17 mmHg/10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing
- C. A drop of 21 mmHg/10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing
- D. A rise of 5 mmHg/10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Postural hypotension 21/10 drop flags, not rises or mild dips. Nurses catch this chronic stand slip (assuming typo meant hypotension).
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with atherosclerosis. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for the development of this disorder?
- A. Diet high in vitamin K
- B. Low HDL-C/High LDL-C
- C. High HDL-C/Low LDL-C
- D. Vegan diet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerosis loves lipids low HDL (good cholesterol) and high LDL (bad cholesterol) pile plaque, a prime risk factor driving vessel narrowing. Vitamin K aids clotting, not plaque. High HDL/low LDL protects. Vegan diets cut fats, lowering risk. Nurses flag lipid imbalance, pushing statins or diet shifts, a cholesterol-fueled root of this vascular scourge.
A parent of a child with Wilms tumor asks the nurse about surgery. Which statement concerning the type of surgery for Wilms tumor is most accurate?
- A. Surgery is only done if chemotherapy and radiation fail.
- B. Surgery is usually performed within 24 to 48 hours of admission.
- C. Surgery is the least favorable therapy for the treatment of Wilms tumor.
- D. Surgery will be delayed until the child's overall health status improves.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Wilms tumor, a kidney cancer in children, is primarily treated with surgical resection (nephrectomy) as the cornerstone of therapy, typically performed within 24 to 48 hours of diagnosis to remove the tumor before it spreads. This urgency stems from its responsiveness to surgery and the need to stage the cancer accurately, guiding subsequent chemotherapy or radiation. Delaying surgery until chemotherapy or radiation fails is incorrect surgery is the initial step, not a last resort. It's not the least favorable option; rather, it's the preferred first-line treatment due to high cure rates when combined with adjuvant therapies. Waiting for health improvement isn't standard unless the child is critically unstable, which isn't typical at diagnosis. The nurse's accurate explanation reassures parents and underscores surgery's role, aligning with pediatric oncology protocols to optimize outcomes in Wilms tumor management.