All of the following are warning signs of cancer except:
- A. Patient palpates a bump on the side of the breast
- B. Bruises are found on the body that the client cannot explain
- C. Patient often complains of impaired digestion
- D. Patient has blood-tinged sputum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood-tinged sputum is not a typical warning sign of cancer but rather a symptom that can indicate other serious conditions like respiratory issues or infections. Choices A, B, and C are common warning signs of cancer: palpable lumps or bumps, unexplained bruises, and persistent digestive issues are often associated with cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional for further assessment and diagnosis.
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In an adult patient, which assessment finding is considered diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?
- A. Schwann cells
- B. Reed-Sternberg cells
- C. Lewy bodies
- D. Loops of Henle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reed-Sternberg cells. In Hodgkin lymphoma, the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph node biopsy is diagnostic. These cells are large, atypical cells originating from B-lymphocytes. They are distinctive in appearance and are key to diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Schwann cells are related to nerve function, Lewy bodies are associated with Parkinson's disease, and Loops of Henle are structures in the kidney, none of which are specific to Hodgkin lymphoma.
Which of the following is not a manifestation of breast cancer?
- A. Peau d'orange
- B. Painless breast mass
- C. Alopecia
- D. Breast enlargement
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alopecia (hair loss) is not a direct manifestation of breast cancer but rather a common side effect of chemotherapy used in breast cancer treatment. Peau d'orange refers to the dimpling or pitting of the skin resembling an orange peel, which can be a sign of breast cancer due to blockage of lymphatic vessels. A painless breast mass and breast enlargement can both be manifestations of breast cancer, with a painless mass being a common symptom and breast enlargement sometimes occurring due to tumor growth.
A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, 'They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworker's breast tumor was benign. I just don't understand at all.' When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type?
- A. Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells
- B. Different proteins in the cell membrane
- C. Differing size of the cells
- D. Different molecular structure in the cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Malignant cells have different proteins in their membranes, such as tumor-specific antigens, which distinguish them from benign cells. Choice A is incorrect as cancer cells typically have a rapid and uncontrolled rate of mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the size of cells alone does not distinguish between malignant and benign cells. Choice D is incorrect as the molecular structure is not the primary characteristic that distinguishes between malignant and benign cells.
A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?
- A. The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.
- B. The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia.
- C. The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia.
- D. The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.
A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Isolate the client in a private room.
- B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
- C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
- D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.