Nokea
An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
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When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?
- A. In the morning upon rising.
- B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
- C. Before the client goes to bed.
- D. After the client has had a drink of water.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.
A nurse at a screening clinic is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis. At which of the following anatomical areas should the nurse place the stethoscope to auscultate the aortic valve?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct placement to auscultate the aortic valve is at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, which coincides with the aortic area. The choice stating 'Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line' is the correct answer for auscultating the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at the left sternal border would be more suitable for listening to the tricuspid valve. The fifth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line is the recommended area for auscultating the mitral valve. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer for assessing the aortic valve in a client with a history of a heart murmur related to aortic valve stenosis.
A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I'm glad I don't have to lie still for this procedure.
- B. I will have a local anesthetic to help with discomfort.
- C. I hope I get some medicine to relax me.
- D. I can't eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.
The nurse is providing education about the importance of proper foot care to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which primary goal is the nurse trying to achieve?
- A. Prevention of plantar warts
- B. Prevention of foot fungus
- C. Prevention of neuropathy
- D. Prevention of amputation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevention of amputation. Patients with diabetes are at a higher risk of foot complications, such as ulcers, infections, and ultimately, amputations. Proper foot care education aims to prevent these serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are also important aspects of foot care, the primary goal in diabetes management is to prevent severe outcomes like amputation.
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?
- A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
- B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
- C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
- D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.