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An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
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The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
- A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
- B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
- D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.
The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?
- A. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
- B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
- C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
- D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.
A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
- B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
- C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
- D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.
An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down
- B. Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will let her know when to call the children
- C. Offer to discuss the client's health status with each of the adult children
- D. Gather information on how long it will take for the children to arrive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client's health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.
Three hours following a right carotid endarterectomy, the nurse notes a moderate amount of bloody drainage on the client's dressing. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Sore throat when swallowing
- B. Tongue deviation to the left
- C. Palpable temporal pulses
- D. Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tongue deviation to the left is the correct answer. It could indicate a complication such as nerve injury or hematoma, which requires immediate attention. A sore throat when swallowing may be expected postoperatively but does not indicate an immediate complication. Palpable temporal pulses are a normal finding and do not require immediate intervention. A temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) is slightly elevated but does not suggest a critical issue related to the surgery.