An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
- A. Don't worry. It's just a phase you will grow out of.
- B. Those are abnormal impulses. You should seek therapy.
- C. At your age, it is normal to be curious about both genders.
- D. Having questions about sexuality is normal. Have you noticed any changes in the way this makes you feel about yourself?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?
- A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
- B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
- C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
- D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history.
G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies.
T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term.
P0: She has not had any preterm births.
A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation.
L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.
A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?
- A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
- B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
- C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
- D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.
An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
- B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
- C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
- D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.
A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.
- B. I will call the physician if he becomes dizzy or overly fussy.
- C. He will need to wash his hands a lot to keep this from spreading.
- D. I'll watch to see when he stops having diarrhea stools.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.
The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
- A. "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion."?
- B. "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe."?
- C. "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex."?
- D. "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk."?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.