Nokea
An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
- A. Fluconazole
- B. Streptomycin
- C. Phthalylsulfathiazole
- D. Ampicillin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole.
1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis.
2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal.
3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal.
4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.
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When a smear is stained by Burri-Gins method a mucous structure that is tightly bound with the cellular wall of bacteria and has well-defined outer boundaries can be detected. This element of a bacteria cell is called:
- A. Capsule
- B. Spore
- C. Filaments
- D. Ribosomes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capsule. A capsule is a mucous structure tightly bound to the bacterial cell wall with distinct outer boundaries. This structure helps bacteria evade the host immune system, resist desiccation, and adhere to surfaces. In contrast, spores are resistant structures formed by certain bacteria for survival, filaments are long chains of bacterial cells, and ribosomes are cellular organelles responsible for protein synthesis. Therefore, based on the characteristics described in the question, the most appropriate choice is A: Capsule.
A patient with severe pneumonia had a sputum culture revealing Gram-negative rods that are non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Enterobacter cloacae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative rod that is a non-lactose fermenter and a common cause of severe pneumonia, especially in immunocompromised individuals. It is also known for its resistance to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat.
Summary of other choices:
B: Escherichia coli is a lactose fermenter and is not commonly associated with severe pneumonia.
C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a lactose fermenter and is more commonly associated with pneumonia in alcoholics or debilitated patients.
D: Enterobacter cloacae is a lactose fermenter and is not a common cause of severe pneumonia.
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus
- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- C. Neisseria meningitidis
- D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
The enzyme used by bacteria to break down hydrogen peroxide is:
- A. Amylase
- B. Catalase
- C. Lipase
- D. Protease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Catalase. Catalase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This process helps protect the bacteria from oxidative damage caused by hydrogen peroxide. Amylase (A), Lipase (C), and Protease (D) are enzymes that are not involved in breaking down hydrogen peroxide. Amylase is involved in breaking down starch, Lipase breaks down lipids, and Protease breaks down proteins. Therefore, they are not the correct enzymes for the given question.
An 18-year-old patient has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes, they are painless, thickened on palpation. In the area of genital mucous membrane there is a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and "laquer"bottom of greyish colour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
- A. Syphilis
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Lepra
- D. Trophic ulcer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. The presentation of painless inguinal lymph nodes, along with a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and a "laquer" bottom of greyish color on the genital mucous membrane, is classic for primary syphilis. The painless nature of the lymph nodes and the specific characteristics of the ulcer are key features of syphilitic infection. Primary syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and typically presents with a single, painless ulcer known as a chancre. It is important to consider syphilis in the differential diagnosis of genital ulcers.
Summary of other choices:
B: Tuberculosis - Unlikely, as tuberculosis typically presents with pulmonary symptoms and does not cause genital ulcers.
C: Lepra - Unlikely, as leprosy does not typically present with painless inguinal lymph nodes and the specific ulcer characteristics described.
D: Trophic ulcer - Unlikely