Nokea
An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
- A. The condition is not caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
- B. The student will most likely not require surgical intervention.
- C. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
- D. The student is not trying to avoid participation in physical education.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents during the rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. The condition is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, such as track and soccer. Choice A is incorrect because Osgood-Schlatter disease is not specifically linked to competitive swimming. Choice B is incorrect as surgical intervention is not usually necessary for this condition. Choice D is incorrect as the student is not trying to avoid physical education but is restricted from participating in sports due to the diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.
- B. I will call the physician if he becomes dizzy or overly fussy.
- C. He will need to wash his hands a lot to keep this from spreading.
- D. I'll watch to see when he stops having diarrhea stools.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.
During an adolescent examination, the nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?
- A. Spinal flexibility
- B. Leg length disparity
- C. Hypostatic blood pressure
- D. Scoliosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is scoliosis. During the assessment for scoliosis, the nurse asks the adolescent to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely to observe for any lateral deviation of the spine, uneven rib levels, or asymmetry. This assessment is a routine part of an adolescent examination, especially in females, as scoliosis is more common in this population. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Spinal flexibility is usually assessed through different maneuvers, leg length disparity is evaluated by measuring the length of the legs, and hypostatic blood pressure refers to a decrease in blood pressure due to immobility.
The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
- B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
- C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
- D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.
When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.