Nokea
An adolescent is admitted to the orthopedic nursing unit after spinal rod insertion for the treatment of scoliosis. Which assessments are most important in the immediate postoperative period when considering the client's neurovascular status? Select all that apply.
- A. Pain level
- B. Urinary output
- C. Ability to move all extremities
- D. Capillary refill in all extremities
- E. Ability to flex and extend the feet
- F. Ability to detect sensations in all extremities
Correct Answer: C,D,E,F
Rationale: When the spinal column is manipulated during surgery, altered neurovascular status is a possible complication; therefore, neurovascular checks, including circulation, sensation, and motion, should be done at least every 2 hours. Level of pain and urinary output are important postoperative assessments, but neurovascular status is more important.
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A prenatal client has been diagnosed with a vaginal infection from the organism Candida albicans. What should the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client?
- A. Costovertebral angle pain
- B. Absence of any observable signs
- C. Pain, itching, and vaginal discharge
- D. Proteinuria, hematuria, and hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clinical manifestations of a Candida infection include pain; itching; and a thick, white vaginal discharge. Proteinuria and hypertension are signs of preeclampsia. Costovertebral angle pain, proteinuria, and hematuria are clinical manifestations associated with upper urinary tract infections.
Which questions should the nurse ask when assessing a client for possible manifestations of Ménière's disease? Select all that apply.
- A. Do you experience ringing in your ears?
- B. Are you prone to vertigo that can last for days?
- C. Can you hear better out of one ear than the other?
- D. Is there a history of Ménière's disease in your family?
- E. Have you ever experienced a head injury in the area of your ears?
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Ménière's disease is characterized by dilation of the endolymphatic system by overproduction or decreased reabsorption of endolymphatic fluid. Manifestations include tinnitus, vertigo that can last for days, and one-sided sensorineural hearing loss. Although the exact cause of the disease is unknown, there does not seem to be a connection with either genetics or head trauma.
A client diagnosed with both a wound infection and osteomyelitis is to receive hyperbaric oxygen therapy. During the therapy, which priority intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Maintaining an intravenous access
- B. Ensuring that oxygen is being delivered
- C. Administering sedation to prevent claustrophobia
- D. Providing emotional support to the client's family
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is a process by which oxygen is administered at greater than atmospheric pressure. When oxygen is inhaled under pressure, the level of tissue oxygen is greatly increased. The high levels of oxygen promote the action of phagocytes and promote healing of the wound. Because the client is placed in a closed chamber, the administration of oxygen is of primary importance. Although options 1, 3, and 4 may be appropriate interventions, option 2 is the priority.
A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is prescribed for a client with a suspected brain tumor. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the client before the procedure?
- A. An opioid
- B. A sedative
- C. A corticosteroid
- D. An antihistamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An MRI scan is a noninvasive diagnostic test that visualizes the body's tissues, structure, and blood flow. For an MRI, the client is positioned on a padded table and moved into a cylinder-shaped scanner. Relaxation techniques, an eye mask, and sedation are used before the procedure to reduce claustrophobic effects; however, because the client must remain very still during the scan, the nurse avoids oversedating the client to ensure client cooperation. There is no useful purpose for administering an opioid, corticosteroid, or antihistamine.
A client who undergoes a gastric resection is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. Which manifestation should the nurse monitor the client for? Select all that apply.
- A. Pallor
- B. Dizziness
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
- E. Constipation
- F. Extreme thirst
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: Dumping syndrome is the rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine that occurs after gastric resection. Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Manifestations also include vasomotor disturbances such as dizziness, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.