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An adolescent teen has bulimia. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to assess?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Cold intolerance
- D. Erosion of tooth enamel
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bulimia involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as vomiting. The frequent exposure of the teeth to stomach acid during vomiting can lead to erosion of tooth enamel. This can result in dental issues such as decay, sensitivity, and discoloration. Therefore, erosion of tooth enamel is a common assessment finding in individuals with bulimia. The other options (A. Diarrhea, B. Amenorrhea, C. Cold intolerance) are not typically associated with bulimia.
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Mrs. Zeno continues to become a weaker despite .treatment with neostigmine. Edrophonium HCL is ordered:
- A. For its synergestic effect
- B. Because of the client's resistance to
- C. To rule out cholinergic crisis Neostigmine
- D. To confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Edrophonium HCL is ordered to rule out cholinergic crisis caused by possible overdose of neostigmine. In myasthenia gravis, patients are normally given neostigmine to help improve muscle strength by prolonging the effect of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. However, if too much neostigmine is given, it can lead to a cholinergic crisis characterized by excess stimulation at the neuromuscular junction. Edrophonium HCL is a fast-acting drug that can help differentiate between a myasthenic crisis (worsening of symptoms due to under-dosing of anti-cholinesterase medication like neostigmine) and a cholinergic crisis (worsening of symptoms due to over-dosing). By administering edrophonium HCL, the healthcare provider can observe the patient's response and determine if the weakness is due to under-treatment or over-treatment with
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
- A. 13 gtt/min
- B. 29 gtt/min
- C. 16 gtt/min
- D. 32 gtt/min Situation 5: Protection of self and patient can be done by supporting the body's immunity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client's history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. Men who had cryptorchidism, a condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth, have a higher risk of developing testicular cancer compared to those without this condition. The abnormal positioning of the testicle outside the scrotum may disrupt normal testicular development and increase the likelihood of malignant transformation. Therefore, clients with a history of cryptorchidism are at increased risk for testicular cancer and warrant close monitoring and follow-up.
The following would be a symptom the nurse would expect to find during assessment of a patient with macular degeneration, EXCEPT:
- A. Decreased ability to distinguish colors
- B. Loss of central vision
- C. Loss of near vision
- D. Loss of peripheral vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Macular degeneration primarily affects the macula, which is responsible for central vision. Therefore, symptoms typically include loss of central vision, decreased ability to distinguish colors, and loss of near vision. Loss of peripheral vision is not a common symptom associated with macular degeneration. Instead, it is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the peripheral retina, such as retinitis pigmentosa.
Mr Santos is scheduled for CT SCAN for the next day, noon time. Which of the following is the correct preparation as instructed by the nurse?
- A. Shampoo hair thoroughly to remove oil and dirt
- B. No special preparation is needed. Instruct the patient to keep his head still and stead
- C. Give a cleansing enema and give fluids until 8 AM
- D. Shave scalp and securely attach electrodes to it
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct preparation for a CT scan, in this case, does not involve any special instructions such as shampooing hair, giving an enema, or shaving the scalp. The patient is simply instructed to keep their head still and steady during the scan. CT scans do not require any specific preparation unless explicitly stated by the healthcare provider conducting the test. It is important to follow the nurse's or healthcare provider's instructions carefully to ensure the best results from the CT scan.