An adult client had an abdominal hysterectomy this morning. Meperidine HCl (Demerol) 75 mg IM q3-4h PRN for pain is ordered. At 9:00 P.M., she complains of lower abdominal pain. She was last medicated at 5:45 P.M. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?
- A. Offer her a bed pan and a back rub
- B. Reposition her
- C. Administer meperidine HCl 75 mg IM
- D. Encourage her to perform relaxation and breathing exercises
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The last dose was over 3 hours ago, within the PRN order. Administering meperidine is appropriate for pain relief.
You may also like to solve these questions
The client who has had a kidney transplant tells the nurse he has been taking St. John's wort, an herb, for depression. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Praise the client for taking the initiative to treat the depression.
- B. Remain nonjudgmental about the client's alternative treatments.
- C. Refer the client to a psychologist for counseling for depression.
- D. Instruct the client to quit taking the medication immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: St. John’s wort induces CYP3A4, reducing immunosuppressant efficacy (e.g., cyclosporine), risking transplant rejection. Stopping it is the priority.
An adult client is being treated for genital herpes with acyclovir (Zovirax) tablets. Which statement she makes indicates that she understands her therapy?
- A. It is safe now to have sexual relations.
- B. I will stay home from work until the blisters are gone.
- C. This medicine will cure the herpes infection.
- D. If the blisters come back, I will start taking the pills immediately.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acyclovir reduces symptoms and recurrence of herpes but does not cure it. Starting treatment at recurrence is appropriate.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who has been treated with quetiapine (Seroquel) for 1 month. Today the client is increasingly agitated and complains of muscle stiffness. Which of these findings should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. Elevated temperature and sweating
- B. Decreased pulse and blood pressure
- C. Mental confusion and general weakness
- D. Muscle spasms and seizures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated temperature and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare disorder that can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by muscular rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, sweating, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction, and increase in CPK. This is a life-threatening complication.
A woman with a 28 week pregnancy is on the way to the emergency department by ambulance with a tentative diagnosis of abruptio placenta. Which should the nurse do first when the woman arrives?
- A. administer oxygen by mask at 100%
- B. start a second IV with an 18 gauge cannula
- C. check fetal heart rate every 15 minutes
- D. insert urethral catheter with hourly urine outputs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: administer oxygen by mask at 100%. Administering oxygen in this situation would increase the circulating oxygen in the mother's circulation to the fetus's circulation. This action will minimize complications.
The client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has been taking valproic acid (Depakote), an anticonvulsant, for four (4) months. Which assessment data would warrant the medication being discontinued?
- A. The client's eyes are yellow.
- B. The client has mood swings.
- C. The client's BP is 164/94.
- D. The client's serum level is 75 mcg/mL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Yellow eyes suggest hepatotoxicity, a serious valproic acid side effect, warranting discontinuation. Mood swings, hypertension, or normal levels are less critical.
Nokea