Nokea
An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down
- B. Reassure the spouse that the healthcare provider will let her know when to call the children
- C. Offer to discuss the client's health status with each of the adult children
- D. Gather information on how long it will take for the children to arrive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client's health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.
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A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?
- A. Cramping muscular pain
- B. Worming movements of the tongue
- C. Decreased tendon reflexes
- D. Dry oral mucous membranes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.
The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a "4" on a 1 to 10 scale
- B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
- C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
- D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.
A client with a prescription for "do not resuscitate" (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client's need for pain medication
- B. Document the impending signs of death
- C. Inform the nurse manager of the client's status
- D. Communicate the client's status to the chaplain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.
The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)
- A. Evaluate the client for sleep disturbances
- B. limit client exercise
- C. Report any client complaint of pain or discomfort
- D. Note and report the client's food and liquid intake during meals and snacks
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Weighing the client and monitoring food and liquid intake are appropriate tasks to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) when managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks provide essential information for evaluating the client's condition and response to treatment. Evaluating for sleep disturbances and reporting client complaints of pain or discomfort require a higher level of assessment and interpretation, which should be performed by licensed healthcare providers. Therefore, options A and C are tasks that involve assessment and interpretation beyond the scope of practice for UAP.
When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
- B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
- C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
- D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.