Nokea
An adult patient has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the patient develops which of the following signs or symptoms?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Weight gain
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Fluconazole, an antifungal medication, can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, which may manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, is crucial during fluconazole therapy. Weight gain, iron deficiency anemia, and hematuria are not commonly associated with fluconazole use and are not indications for discontinuing the drug.
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When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?
- A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
- B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
- C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
- D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.
A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?
- A. Electromyography (EMG)
- B. Nerve conduction studies
- C. Muscle biopsy
- D. Blood test for autoantibodies
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.
A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Initiate CPR.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.
When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:
- A. Hyperchromic
- B. Hypochromic
- C. Macrocytic
- D. Microcytic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.