Free Pediatric CCRN Practice Questions

Free Pediatric CCRN Practice Questions Related

Review Free Pediatric CCRN Practice Questions related questions and content

An adult suffered 2nd and third degree burns over 20% of hid body 2 days ago. What is the best way to assess the client's fluid balance?

  • A. Maintain strict records of intake and output
  • B. Monitor skin turgor
  • C. Weigh the client daily
  • D. Check for edema
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining strict records of intake and output is the best way to assess the client's fluid balance in this situation. Severe burns can lead to fluid loss, which can result in dehydration and other complications. By carefully monitoring the amount of fluid the client is taking in (intake) and the amount of fluid being eliminated from the body (output), healthcare providers can assess the client's fluid balance and make necessary adjustments to prevent dehydration or fluid overload. This approach provides accurate and specific information to guide fluid management and ensure optimal recovery for the client with burns. Monitoring skin turgor, daily weight, and checking for edema are also important measures, but maintaining strict records of intake and output is the most direct and effective method for assessing fluid balance in a client with burns.

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A 2-year-old child is being evaluated for a right flank mass; radiological appearance is consistent with rupture of Wilms tumor. The BEST therapeutic approach for this child is

  • A. radiotherapy
  • B. concomitant chemotherapy-radiotherapy
  • C. another surgery
  • D. observation
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Concomitant chemotherapy and radiotherapy are essential to manage ruptured Wilms tumor and reduce the risk of dissemination.

Which of the following medications should then nurse explain may cause headache as a side effect?

  • A. Furosemide (Lasix)
  • B. Clonidine (Catapres)
  • C. Atenolol ((Tenormin)
  • D. Adalat (Procardia)
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Adalat (Procardia) belongs to a class of medications known as calcium channel blockers. Headache is a common side effect associated with the use of calcium channel blockers, including Adalat (Procardia). The mechanism behind this side effect is related to the vasodilatory effects of calcium channel blockers, which can lead to relaxation and widening of blood vessels, potentially causing headaches. It is important for the nurse to explain to the patient that headache is a possible side effect of Adalat (Procardia) and to consult the healthcare provider if it becomes bothersome or severe.

Which of the following terms would indicate to the nurse that a substance is toxic to the ear?

  • A. Otoplasty
  • B. Ototoxic
  • C. Otalgia
  • D. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term "ototoxic" indicates that a substance has the potential to cause damage to the ear or auditory system. Ototoxic substances can lead to hearing loss or damage to the inner ear structures. Therefore, if a nurse encounters the term ototoxic in a clinical setting, it would indicate that the substance being discussed is toxic to the ear. The other options, otoplasty, otalgia, and tinnitus, do not specifically indicate toxicity to the ear.

Which of the following parameters would Nurse Max monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of thickened feedings for an infant with gastroesophageL REFLUX (GER)?

  • A. Urine
  • B. Vomiting
  • C. Weight
  • D. Stools
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nurse Max would monitor the infant's weight to evaluate the effectiveness of thickened feedings for gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Weight monitoring is crucial because it can indicate if the infant is gaining, maintaining, or losing weight, which can be reflective of how well they are tolerating the thickened feedings. An increase in weight would suggest that the infant is receiving adequate nutrition and that the thickened feedings are effective in managing GER symptoms. Monitoring weight can also help assess if the infant's overall growth and development are progressing appropriately in the context of their GER condition.

A client with cancer that has metastazised to the liver is started on chemotherapy- His physician has specified divided doses of the antimetabolite. The client asks why he could take the drug in divided doses. The appropriate response is:

  • A. " There really is no reason your doctor just wrote the orders that way."
  • B. "This schedule will reduce the side effect of the drug."
  • C. "Divided doses produce greater cytotoxic effects on the diseased cells."
  • D. "Because these drugs prevent cell division, they are more effective in divided doses,"
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D, "Because these drugs prevent cell division, they are more effective in divided doses."

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