An adult who has cholecystitis reports clay-colored stools and moderate jaundice. The nurse knows that which is the best explanation for the presence of clay-colored stools and jaundice?
- A. There is an obstruction in the pancreatic duct.
- B. There are gallstones in the gallbladder.
- C. Bile is no longer produced by the gallbladder.
- D. There is an obstruction in the common bile duct.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clay-colored stools and jaundice result from a common bile duct obstruction, preventing bile flow to the intestines and causing bilirubin buildup in the blood. The gallbladder stores, not produces, bile, and pancreatic or gallbladder issues are less directly related.
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When teaching parents about sickle cell disease, the nurse should tell them that their child's anemia is caused by
- A. Reduced oxygen capacity of cells due to lack of iron
- B. An imbalance between red cell destruction and production
- C. Depression of red and white cells and platelets
- D. Inability of sickle shaped cells to regenerate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An imbalance between red cell destruction and production. Anemia results when the rate of red cell destruction exceeds the rate of production through stimulated erythropoiesis in bone marrow (red cell life span shortened from 120 days to 12-20 days).
The nurse is teaching a smoking cessation class and notices there are 2 pregnant women in the group. Which information is a priority for these women?
- A. Low tar cigarettes are less harmful during pregnancy
- B. There is a relationship between smoking and low birth weight
- C. The placenta serves as a barrier to nicotine
- D. Moderate smoking is effective in weight control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: There is a relationship between smoking and low birth weight. Smoking reduces placental blood flow, contributing to fetal hypoxia and low birth weight.
The nurse caring for a client with anemia recognizes which clinical manifestation as one specific for a hemolytic type of anemia?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Anorexia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The destruction of red blood cells causes the release of bilirubin, leading to the yellow hue of the skin. Answers C and D occur with anemia but are not specific to hemolytic. Answer B does not relate.
The nurse is caring for a child receiving chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which of the following actions by the nurse would be appropriate?
- A. Schedule the therapy thirty minutes after meals
- B. Teach the child not to cough during the treatment
- C. Continue the percussion to the rib cage area
- D. Place the child in a prone position for the therapy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continue the percussion to the rib cage area. Percussion should target the rib cage to mobilize secretions effectively.
Laboratory results
Hematocrit
Male: 42%–52%
(0.42-0.52)
Female: 37%–47%
(0.37–0.47) 30%
(0.30)
Activated PTT
Baseline: 30–40 sec 110 sec
Platelets
150,000–400,000/mm3
(150–400 × 109/L) 80,000/mm3
(80 x 109/L)
PT
11–12.5 sec 11 sec
The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is prescribed acyclovir for genital herpes. Which statement should be included by the nurse?
- A. Activated PTT(62%)
- B. Hemotocrit(5%)
- C. Platelets(23%)
- D. PT(8%)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation. It is titrated based on activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT). The therapeutic aPTT target is 1.5-2.0 times the normal reference range of 30-40
seconds. A aPTT value >100 seconds would be considered critical and could result in life-threatening side
effects. Common sentinel events that result from heparin drips include epistaxis, hematuria, and gastrointestina
bleeds (Option 1).
(Option 2) A normal hematocrit for a female is 37%-47% (0.37-0.47). In a client with a history of chronic
anemia, a hematocrit of 30% (0.30) may be an expected finding.
(Option 3) A normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm* (150-400 x 10%L). In a client with a history of liver
cirrhosis, a platelet count of 80,000/mmª (80 x 10%/L) would be anticipated. An episode of bleeding rarely occurs
with a platelet count >50,000 mm* (50 x 10%/L).
(Option 4) A normal prothrombin time is 11-12.5 seconds, and so a level of 11 seconds would not be
concerning.
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