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An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
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A postoperative patient who had surgery for a perforated gastric ulcer has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days. The patient now has a serum sodium level of 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L). Which prescribed therapy should the nurse question?
- A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr.
- B. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN.
- C. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea.
- D. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium decreases to less than 128 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 mL/hr because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, leading to hyponatremia. Therefore, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions like lactated Ringer's solution would usually be ordered. The other choices (B, C, and D) are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction, addressing pain management, nausea control, and correcting hyponatremia if it drops below a certain level.
The nurse requests a meal tray for a client who follows Mormon beliefs and who is on a clear liquid diet following abdominal surgery. Which menu items should the nurse request for this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. apple juice
- B. black coffee
- C. orange juice
- D. hot chocolate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: apple juice. Clear liquids like apple juice and orange juice are suitable for a client following a clear liquid diet and Mormon beliefs. Options B and D, black coffee and hot chocolate, contain caffeine, which may not align with the client's religious dietary restrictions. Therefore, these options should be avoided for this client.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
- B. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
- C. Obtain an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing.
- D. Position the patient's face away from the CVAD during injection cap changes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications helps remove debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. Choice A is incorrect because friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site to decrease infection risk. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing is not necessary; the dressing should be changed when damp, loose, or visibly soiled. Choice D is incorrect because the patient should face away from the CVAD during cap changes to minimize the risk of contamination.
At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
- B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.