Nokea
An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
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A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
- B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
- C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
- D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking
- C. Gradual onset of weakness in the legs
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.
Fluids are restricted to 1500 ml/day for a male client with AKI. He is frustrated and complaining of constant thirst, and the nurse discovers that the family is providing the client with additional fluids. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove all sources of liquids from the client's room
- B. Allow family to give the client a measured amount of ice chips
- C. Restrict family visiting until the client's condition is stable
- D. Provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth. This intervention helps alleviate the client's thirst without increasing fluid intake, which is essential in managing AKI. Removing all sources of liquids from the client's room (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of thirst and could lead to increased frustration. Allowing the family to give the client ice chips (Choice B) would add to the client's fluid intake, contradicting the restriction. Restricting family visiting (Choice C) is not necessary and does not directly address the client's thirst.
A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?
- A. 23%
- B. 25%
- C. 27%
- D. 29%
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: One unit of PRBCs typically raises the hematocrit by 3%. Since the client received 4 units, the hematocrit is expected to increase by approximately 12% (4 units x 3% per unit). Therefore, the nurse should expect the client's hematocrit to be 29% after all PRBCs have been transfused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not account for the cumulative effect of multiple PRBC units on the hematocrit level.