Nokea
An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?
- A. a therapeutic effect
- B. a side effect
- C. an adverse effect
- D. an incompatibility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.
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A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?
- A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
- B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
- C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
- D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.
A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?
- A. Behind the knee
- B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
- C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
- D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.
Which of the following would likely not impede learning?
- A. a client who took Ambien® an hour ago
- B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
- C. a client who states they are not interested
- D. a client with dysphagia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien® an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.
A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. Rotator cuff lesions
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
A laboring client is experiencing late decelerations. Which position should she be placed in?
- A. left lateral
- B. lithotomy
- C. semi-Fowler's
- D. right lateral
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the laboring client in the left lateral position is beneficial because it promotes blood flow to the placenta. Late decelerations indicate potential issues with fetal oxygenation, and changing the position to left lateral can help improve placental perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithotomy, semi-Fowler's, and right lateral positions do not specifically address the need for improved blood flow to the placenta in cases of late decelerations.