An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
- C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy and acknowledges the client's feelings without admitting fault. By saying "I understand you are frustrated with the wait time," the nurse validates the client's emotions and shows a willingness to listen and address concerns. This response can help de-escalate the situation and build rapport.
Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't directly address the client's emotions. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the client based on their anger rather than medical need. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as dismissive of the client's feelings and lacks empathy.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This is because the client is experiencing evisceration, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate attention to prevent infection and further complications. By applying a sterile saline dressing, the nurse can protect the exposed bowel from contamination, maintain moisture, and promote healing. This action helps to reduce the risk of infection and provides a temporary barrier until further interventions can be implemented.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to protect the exposed bowel is the priority.
C: Administering pain medication does not address the primary concern of protecting the exposed bowel.
D: Covering the wound with an abdominal binder does not provide the necessary protection and could potentially exacerbate the situation by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.
A client who has had three spontaneous abortions is requesting information about possible causes. The nurse's response should be based on which information?
- A. Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
- B. Incompetent cervix can cause spontaneous abortions
- C. An infection can cause spontaneous abortions
- D. Nutritional deficiencies are the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because chromosomal abnormalities are indeed the most common cause of early spontaneous abortions. These abnormalities can occur during fertilization or early cell division, leading to non-viable embryos. Choice B, incompetent cervix, typically causes late-term miscarriages. Choice C, infections, can contribute to miscarriages but are not the most common cause. Choice D, nutritional deficiencies, can impact pregnancy outcomes but are not the primary cause of early spontaneous abortions. In summary, the correct answer A is supported by the fact that chromosomal abnormalities are the leading cause of early spontaneous abortions, while the other choices are either more relevant to late-term miscarriages or less commonly associated with early pregnancy loss.
A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?
- A. Ineffective airway clearance
- B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
- C. Fluid volume excess
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective airway clearance. After a ureter lithotomy, the client may be at risk for respiratory complications due to anesthesia, pain, and immobility. Ineffective airway clearance can lead to hypoxia and respiratory distress, making it the highest priority. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway and breathing in the postoperative period. Therefore, addressing airway clearance first is crucial to ensure optimal client outcomes.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate because the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. Carbohydrates will quickly raise the blood sugar level. Glucagon injection is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Providing a snack with protein is not the immediate action needed to raise the blood sugar rapidly. Encouraging rest is not effective in treating hypoglycemia.
The client diagnosed with a right fractured femur has skeletal traction applied to the right femur. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform passive range of motion to the right leg
- B. Remove skeletal weights every shift to assess right leg
- C. Turn frequently from prone to supine positions
- D. Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection. This is important to prevent complications like infection, which can be severe. The nurse should regularly assess the pin sites for redness, swelling, or discharge. This intervention ensures early detection and prompt treatment of any signs of infection, reducing the risk of serious complications.
Choice A is incorrect because performing passive range of motion to the right leg may disrupt the traction and interfere with the healing process.
Choice B is incorrect because removing skeletal weights every shift can lead to loss of traction, compromising the fracture alignment and healing process.
Choice C is incorrect because turning the client frequently from prone to supine positions may also disrupt the traction and increase the risk of complications.
Nokea