Nokea
An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?
- A. knowledge that elder abuse is rare
- B. personal belief that abuse is deserved
- C. lack of developmentally appropriate screening tools
- D. fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Barriers to reporting elder abuse include victim shame, fear of reprisals, fear of loss of caregiver, and lack of knowledge of agencies that provide services. Many elders fear that reporting abuse results in their placement in long-term care because the current caregiver is the abuser. Choice A is incorrect because knowledge of the frequency of elder abuse is not a significant factor in a victim's reluctance to report. Choice B is also incorrect; while some victims may have feelings of undeservedness, it is not a common primary barrier to reporting abuse. Choice C is incorrect as the lack of appropriate screening tools may hinder identification but is not a significant barrier for the client to admit being a victim. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported is a common and significant barrier for elderly clients to admit being a victim.
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A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?
- A. Cyanocobalamin
- B. Protamine sulfate
- C. Streptokinase
- D. Sodium warfarin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.
Narrow therapeutic index medications:
- A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
- B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
- C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
- D. have limited potency and side effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.
A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake 24 hours before the procedure
- B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study
- C. Administer medication that affects the central nervous system as prescribed
- D. Position the client appropriately for the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.
A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?
- A. Neologism
- B. Word salad
- C. Clang association
- D. Associative looseness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.