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A client at 20 weeks' gestation asks about the purpose of an anatomy ultrasound. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. To confirm the baby’s sex.
- B. To assess the baby’s growth and development.
- C. To detect early signs of labor.
- D. To evaluate amniotic fluid levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The anatomy ultrasound assesses fetal growth, development, and structural abnormalities.
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The nurse discusses treatment for side effects of perimenopause. What education should be provided?
- A. Menopausal hormone therapy can decrease symptoms of menopause.
- B. Hot flashes are normal, and no one should need treatment for this symptom.
- C. Medications to decrease estrogen can help with insomnia.
- D. Depression is normal, so no treatment is needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The patient came for an induction and under which circumstances does the nurse remove prostaglandin from the patient's cervix? SATA
- A. N&V
- B. Late deceleration
- C. Contractions every 90 seconds
- D. Contractions every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. Nausea and vomiting (N&V) are not typically indications for removing prostaglandin from the patient's cervix during induction. These symptoms are common side effects and can be managed without removing the prostaglandin.
Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?
- A. Keeping under pad and linen as dry as possible
- B. Performing vaginal exam q hour while client in active area
- C. Cleaning secretion from vaginal area using back to front
- D. Using clean technique for all procedures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using clean technique for all procedures helps prevent infection in the labor and birth area. A clean technique involves maintaining cleanliness and limiting contamination during procedures. This includes proper hand hygiene, use of clean gloves, and ensuring that equipment and supplies are kept clean and sterile as needed. By adhering to clean techniques, the nurse reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the labor and birth area, ultimately reducing the chances of infection for both the mother and baby. It is important for the nurse to practice proper infection control measures to provide a safe environment for labor and birth.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is 34 weeks ges- dividing?
- A. Trophoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the fetal monitor tracing are a priority for the nurse to placenta
- B. Embryoblast or inner cell mass that becomes the that apply. embryo
- C. Baseline FHR 140, accelerations, late decelerations,
- D. Morula
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of the question, the nurse is monitoring a 34-week gestation client. At 34 weeks, the trophoblast or inner cell mass has already developed into the placenta, which is formed earlier in pregnancy. Therefore, choice A is the most relevant option in this scenario. Trophoblast is critical for implantation and the formation of the placenta, which plays a vital role in supporting the developing fetus by providing oxygen and nutrients. Understanding the different stages of fetal development can help the nurse provide optimal care and monitor for any potential issues that may arise during pregnancy.
A patient who was diagnosed prenatally as having epidural for pain management. What should the greater than 2,000 mL of amniotic fluid just deliv- nurse be prepared to do? Select all that apply. ered a 9 lb (4,082 g) baby girl. Her nurse is aware
- A. Assess maternal vital signs that she is now at risk for which condition?
- B. Assess FHR
- C. Infection
- D. Assist patient to the bathroom to void
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Assess maternal vital signs: With the delivery of a baby with macrosomia (greater than 4,000 g), the mother is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony, retained placental fragments, or lacerations. Therefore, assessing maternal vital signs is crucial in detecting any signs of hemorrhage promptly.