Nokea
An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
- A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
- B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
- C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
- D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
- B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
- C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
- D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.
A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Schedule the client for group therapy with other clients with bulimia nervosa.
- B. Assign the client's care to a nurse with relevant experience in eating disorders.
- C. Monitor the client carefully for binging and purging activities.
- D. Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing and reporting the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider is the highest priority in a client with bulimia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, are common due to purging behaviors associated with bulimia. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while therapy and monitoring for binging activities are important, addressing the electrolyte imbalances caused by purging behaviors takes precedence in the immediate care of a client with bulimia nervosa.
During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.
A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
- A. Psychosis
- B. Repression
- C. Conversion Disorder
- D. Dissociative Disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. "You can stand wherever you'd like as long as you stay safe from those in the parade."
- B. "You seem confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade."
- C. "Let's go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there."
- D. "Remember, this is a nursing home, and I am here to help you."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.