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An elderly patient brings a bag of medications to the clinic. The nurse finds a bottle labeled Ativan and one labeled lorazepam, both of which are to be taken BID. There are also bottles labeled hydrochlorothiazide, Inderal, and rofecoxib, each to be taken once daily. Which conclusion is accurate?
- A. Rofecoxib should not be taken with Ativan.
- B. Lorazepam interferes with the action of Inderal.
- C. The patient should not self-administer medication.
- D. Lorazepam and Ativan are the same drug, so the dose is excessive.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lorazepam and Ativan are generic and trade names for the same drug (D), creating an accidental misuse situation with an excessive dose. The patient needs medication education and help with proper labeling; there is no evidence they cannot self-administer (C). Options A and B are not factually supported.
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A patient living independently had command hallucinations to shout warnings to neighbors. After a short hospitalization, the patient was prohibited from returning to the apartment. The landlord said, 'You cause too much trouble.' What problem is the patient experiencing?
- A. Grief
- B. Stigma
- C. Homelessness
- D. Nonadherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The inability to obtain shelter because of negative attitudes about mental illness is an example of stigma. Stigma is defined as damage to reputation, shame, and ridicule society places on mental illness. Data are not present to identify grief as a patient problem. Data do not suggest that the patient is actually homeless.
A patient with schizophrenia has received typical (first-generation) antipsychotics for a year. His hallucinations are less intrusive, but he remains apathetic, has poverty of thought, cannot work, and is socially isolated. To address these symptoms, the nurse might consult the prescribing health care provider to suggest a change to:
- A. haloperidol (Haldol).
- B. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic that is known to be effective in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as apathy, poverty of thought, and social withdrawal. These symptoms are often resistant to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol (A) and chlorpromazine (D), which are more effective for positive symptoms like hallucinations. Diphenhydramine (C) is an antihistamine and not used to treat schizophrenia symptoms. In summary, olanzapine is the best choice to address the specific symptoms described in the scenario.
A client, age 42, has been battered by her husband since they were married 8 years ago. Until this hospitalization for major depression, she had avoided dealing with her situation, but she now expresses a desire to deal with the problem. The attacks are occurring more often. Which outcome is realistic for the client?
- A. Citing possible ways she may have contributed to the abusive episodes
- B. Verbalizing an awareness of her increasingly dangerous situation
- C. Setting a goal date for divorcing her husband
- D. Employing methods of retaliating in order to get even with her husband
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verbalizing an awareness of her increasingly dangerous situation. This choice is the most realistic outcome for the client as it shows an initial step towards acknowledging the severity of her situation. By verbalizing awareness, the client can begin to understand the potential dangers she faces, which is crucial for developing a safety plan and seeking appropriate help.
Choice A is incorrect as it may lead to victim-blaming and does not address the root cause of the abuse. Choice C is premature as setting a goal date for divorcing her husband requires careful planning and consideration of various factors. Choice D is inappropriate as retaliation can escalate the violence and put the client at further risk.
In summary, choice B is the best option as it focuses on increasing the client's awareness of her situation, which is a crucial first step towards addressing and eventually overcoming the abusive relationship.
A nurse monitors a patient with anorexia nervosa for complications of refeeding. Which assessment is most important?
- A. Pupillary reaction to light
- B. Temperature measurements
- C. Reports of serum electrolytes
- D. Complaints of sleep disturbances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, reports of serum electrolytes. In anorexia nervosa, refeeding syndrome can occur, leading to electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum electrolytes is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias and seizures. Pupillary reaction, temperature, and sleep disturbances are important but not as critical as assessing electrolyte levels in this scenario.
Which stage of Piaget's theory marks the onset of logical thinking?
- A. Sensorimotor
- B. Preoperational
- C. Concrete Operational
- D. Formal Operational
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Concrete Operational stage (C), around age 7-11, marks the onset of logical thinking about concrete events, per Piaget's theory. Earlier stages (A, B) lack this, and Formal Operational (D) involves abstract logic later.